By the end of this chapter you'll be able to…

  • 1Use the time from exposure to reaction to identify the hypersensitivity type, and explain why each type operates at its characteristic speed
  • 2Separate type II from type III hypersensitivity by antigen location, and predict the immunofluorescence pattern each produces
  • 3Assign each T-helper subset its defining cytokines and the reactions it drives
  • 4Explain how central and peripheral tolerance fail, and name the disease that demonstrates each mechanism
  • 5Distinguish screening from confirmatory autoantibodies and match each named antibody to its disease
  • 6Read an infection pattern backwards to identify which immune arm has failed
  • 7Recognise hyper-IgM syndrome from the immunoglobulin class pattern alone
  • 8Classify transplant rejection by timing and identify acute humoral rejection from C4d staining
  • 9Interpret an immunohistochemistry panel to determine the tissue of origin of a metastasis, and state which markers directly determine treatment
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Why this chapter matters in NEET PG
These two topics look like unrelated lists and are usually learned as lists, but each is governed by a single rule. In immunopathology, timing names the mechanism, because each immune effector arm operates at its own fixed speed — preformed mediators act in minutes, T cells need two to three days. In immunohistochemistry, a tumour keeps the markers of the cell it came from, because malignant transformation changes growth control rather than lineage identity, so a marker panel reads backwards to the tissue of origin.

Immunopathology & IHC Markers

1. What this chapter covers, and how NEET PG actually tests it

Immunopathology and immunohistochemistry look like two unrelated lists, and both are usually learned as lists. Neither needs to be.

Each is governed by one rule, and the rule does the work that memorisation otherwise would.

Rule one: timing names the mechanism. Each immune effector arm operates at a fixed characteristic speed, so how long a reaction takes to appear identifies which arm produced it.

Rule two: a tumour keeps the markers of the cell it came from. Malignant transformation changes growth control, not lineage identity, so the marker panel reads backwards to the tissue of origin.

AreaWhat the exam asksThe clue given
HypersensitivityWhich typeTime from exposure to reaction
AutoantibodiesWhich diseaseA named antibody
ImmunodeficiencyWhich arm failedOrganism type and age at onset
Transplant rejectionWhich typeTime from transplantation
ComplementWhich pathwayWhich components are low
ImmunohistochemistryTissue of originA marker panel

2. Hypersensitivity: timing names the mechanism

2.1 The four types and their speeds

TypeMechanismTimingExample
IIgE on mast cellsMinutesAnaphylaxis, atopy
IIAntibody against fixed tissue antigenHours to daysAutoimmune haemolysis, Goodpasture
IIICirculating immune complexes depositDays to weeksSerum sickness, lupus nephritis
IVT cell mediated48 to 72 hoursTuberculin test, contact dermatitis

Type I is measured in minutes because the mediators are preformed. Histamine sits ready in mast cell granules and needs only cross-linking of IgE to be released.

The late phase at four to eight hours reflects newly synthesised leukotrienes and recruited eosinophils, which is why antihistamines control the immediate phase but not the late one.

Type IV takes two to three days because T cells must traffic, recognise antigen and recruit macrophages, and no antibody is involved at all.

That absence of antibody is why type IV reactions cannot be transferred with serum, only with cells.

2.2 Separating type II from type III

Both involve antibody, so timing alone is insufficient. The location of the antigen separates them.

Type II antibody binds an antigen that is already fixed in the tissue; type III antibody binds a soluble antigen in the circulation, and the resulting complex then deposits.

Immunofluorescence shows the difference directly: type II gives a smooth linear pattern along the basement membrane, type III gives a granular or lumpy-bumpy pattern.

Goodpasture syndrome is the standard type II example, with linear staining against the alpha-3 chain of type IV collagen.

Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is the standard type III example, with granular subepithelial humps.

Type III damage occurs wherever complexes lodge, which is why serum sickness produces fever, arthralgia, rash and glomerulonephritis together.

2.3 The T-helper subsets that decide which arm responds

Which hypersensitivity type a person develops depends on which T-helper subset dominates, and each subset is defined by the cytokines it makes.

T-helper 1 cells make interferon-gamma and drive macrophage activation, granulomas and type IV reactions.

T-helper 2 cells make interleukin-4, interleukin-5 and interleukin-13, and drive IgE class switching, eosinophils and type I reactions.

The two subsets cross-inhibit each other, which is why a strong T-helper 1 response suppresses allergy and why the balance is central to the hygiene hypothesis.

T-helper 17 cells make interleukin-17 and recruit neutrophils, and their failure explains the chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis seen in hyper-IgE syndrome.

Regulatory T cells express FOXP3 and suppress the others; FOXP3 mutation causes IPEX syndrome, a severe multi-organ autoimmunity of infancy.

Interleukin-12 from macrophages is what drives naive T cells towards the T-helper 1 phenotype, which links this section to granuloma formation.

3. Autoimmunity and the antibodies

3.1 How tolerance fails

Autoimmunity is a failure of tolerance, and there are only a few ways tolerance can break.

Central tolerance deletes self-reactive lymphocytes in the thymus and marrow, and depends on the AIRE gene, which lets thymic epithelium display peripheral tissue antigens.

AIRE mutation causes autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome type 1, which is the cleanest demonstration that central tolerance is an active process rather than a passive absence of self-antigen.

Peripheral tolerance depends on regulatory T cells, on anergy when a T cell meets antigen without costimulation, and on activation-induced cell death.

Molecular mimicry explains rheumatic fever, where antibody against streptococcal M protein cross-reacts with cardiac myosin.

Release of sequestered antigen explains sympathetic ophthalmia, in which trauma to one eye exposes antigens the immune system never learned to tolerate and the other eye is attacked.

3.2 Sensitivity and specificity are the real question

Autoantibody questions almost always turn on whether an antibody is a screening test or a confirmatory one.

Antinuclear antibody is sensitive but not specific, so a negative result largely excludes lupus while a positive result proves little.

Anti-double-stranded DNA and anti-Smith are specific for lupus; anti-double-stranded DNA also tracks disease activity and nephritis.

Anti-histone antibody indicates drug-induced lupus, classically from hydralazine, procainamide or isoniazid, which characteristically spares the kidney.

3.3 The antibody table worth knowing cold

AntibodyDisease
Anti-dsDNA, anti-SmithSystemic lupus erythematosus
Anti-histoneDrug-induced lupus
Anti-centromereLimited scleroderma (CREST)
Anti-Scl-70 (topoisomerase I)Diffuse scleroderma
Anti-Ro and anti-LaSjogren syndrome, neonatal lupus
Anti-Jo-1Polymyositis with interstitial lung disease
Anti-mitochondrialPrimary biliary cholangitis
Anti-smooth muscleAutoimmune hepatitis type 1
Anti-transglutaminase, anti-endomysialCoeliac disease
Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptideRheumatoid arthritis, specific
c-ANCA (anti-proteinase 3)Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
p-ANCA (anti-myeloperoxidase)Microscopic polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis

Anti-Ro crosses the placenta and causes congenital heart block, which is why it is checked in pregnancy planning for connective tissue disease.

Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide is more specific than rheumatoid factor and appears earlier, so it is preferred for both diagnosis and prognosis.

3.4 HLA associations

Human leukocyte antigen associations are pure recall, but they are cheap marks and appear reliably.

HLA alleleAssociation
B27Ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease arthropathy
B57:01Abacavir hypersensitivity
B15:02Carbamazepine-induced Stevens-Johnson syndrome in South Asians
DQ2 and DQ8Coeliac disease
DR3 and DR4Type 1 diabetes mellitus
DR2Multiple sclerosis, Goodpasture syndrome
DR4Rheumatoid arthritis
A3Hereditary haemochromatosis

Class I molecules are HLA-A, B and C and present to CD8 cells; class II are DP, DQ and DR and present to CD4 cells.

The B57:01 and B15:02 associations are the two with direct prescribing consequences, since testing before abacavir and before carbamazepine is now standard practice in the relevant populations.

4. Immunodeficiency: the organism names the arm

4.1 Reading the infection pattern backwards

Which organisms cause trouble tells you which arm has failed, because each arm defends against a different class of pathogen.

Antibody deficiency gives recurrent encapsulated bacterial infection — pneumococcus, Haemophilus, Neisseria — beginning around six months as maternal IgG wanes.

T cell deficiency gives viral, fungal and opportunistic infection from birth, since maternal antibody offers no protection against these.

Phagocyte defects give catalase-positive bacterial and fungal infection, with abscesses and poor wound healing.

Complement deficiency of the terminal components gives recurrent neisserial infection specifically, because the membrane attack complex is what kills Neisseria.

4.2 The named conditions

Bruton agammaglobulinaemia is X-linked, caused by a BTK tyrosine kinase defect, with absent B cells and absent tonsils.

Selective IgA deficiency is the commonest primary immunodeficiency, often asymptomatic, and matters chiefly because of anaphylaxis to blood products containing IgA.

DiGeorge syndrome is a 22q11 deletion with thymic and parathyroid aplasia, giving T cell deficiency with hypocalcaemic tetany and conotruncal cardiac anomalies.

Severe combined immunodeficiency involves both arms, presents in infancy with failure to thrive and persistent candidiasis, and is fatal without transplantation.

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is X-linked with eczema, thrombocytopenia with small platelets, and recurrent infection.

Ataxia-telangiectasia combines a DNA repair defect with cerebellar ataxia, oculocutaneous telangiectasia and raised alpha-fetoprotein.

Hyper-IgM syndrome is a CD40 ligand defect, so class switching fails: IgM is normal or high while IgG, IgA and IgE are low.

The pattern of immunoglobulin classes therefore identifies hyper-IgM syndrome without any genetic test.

4.3 Complement

The classical pathway is activated by antibody, the alternative pathway by microbial surfaces, and the lectin pathway by mannose.

C3 is the convergence point of all three, so a low C3 with a normal C4 suggests alternative pathway activation.

Hereditary angioedema is C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency, with non-pruritic angioedema and no urticaria, and does not respond to antihistamines or adrenaline in the way an allergic reaction does.

Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria is a GPI anchor defect leaving cells without CD55 and CD59, so complement lyses them; flow cytometry has replaced the Ham test.

5. Transplant rejection: timing again

TypeTimingMechanism
HyperacuteMinutesPreformed recipient antibodies
Acute cellularDays to monthsT cell mediated
Acute humoralDays to monthsDonor-specific antibodies, C4d staining
ChronicMonths to yearsVascular intimal fibrosis

Hyperacute rejection occurs on the operating table because the antibodies are already present and need no time to be generated, and cross-matching exists specifically to prevent it.

Acute cellular rejection shows a lymphocytic infiltrate and responds to increased immunosuppression.

Acute humoral rejection is identified by C4d deposition in peritubular capillaries, which is a footprint of complement activation by donor-specific antibody.

Chronic rejection is the one form that does not respond to immunosuppression, because the damage is established fibrous narrowing rather than active inflammation.

Graft-versus-host disease is the reverse situation, in which donor T cells attack the recipient, and classically targets skin, gut and liver.

It requires an immunocompetent graft and an immunocompromised host, which is why it complicates bone marrow rather than solid organ transplantation.

Irradiating blood products before transfusing severely immunosuppressed patients exists specifically to prevent transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease.

6. Immunohistochemistry: lineage is retained

6.1 Why the panel works

A malignant cell loses growth control but keeps the differentiation programme of its parent tissue.

So the marker profile of a metastasis of unknown origin points back to where it started, which is often what determines treatment.

MarkerIndicates
CytokeratinEpithelial (carcinoma)
VimentinMesenchymal (sarcoma)
DesminMuscle
Smooth muscle actinSmooth muscle
S-100Melanoma, Schwannoma, Langerhans cells
HMB-45, Melan-AMelanoma, more specific than S-100
Leukocyte common antigen (CD45)Lymphoma
Chromogranin, synaptophysinNeuroendocrine
Thyroid transcription factor 1Lung adenocarcinoma, thyroid
CDX2Colorectal
PSAProstate
GFAPGlial
CD117 (c-KIT)Gastrointestinal stromal tumour
CD31, factor VIIIVascular endothelium
CalretininMesothelioma
Alpha-fetoproteinHepatocellular, yolk sac tumour

6.2 The panels that decide management

Breast cancer is classified by oestrogen receptor, progesterone receptor and HER2, which determine whether endocrine therapy, trastuzumab or neither is used.

Triple-negative disease lacks all three and therefore has no targeted option, which is why it carries a worse prognosis.

CD117 positivity in a gastric submucosal tumour identifies a gastrointestinal stromal tumour and makes imatinib the treatment, a direct link from an immunohistochemical stain to a drug.

Calretinin distinguishes mesothelioma from adenocarcinoma in a pleural biopsy, a distinction with major medicolegal as well as clinical consequences.

The lymphoma markers follow B and T lineage: CD19 and CD20 for B cells, CD3 for T cells, CD15 and CD30 for Reed-Sternberg cells.

6.3 Serum tumour markers, and what they are actually for

Serum markers are examined alongside immunohistochemistry, and the recurring point is that almost none of them is a diagnostic test.

Their real value is monitoring treatment response and detecting recurrence, because a marker that falls and then rises again is far more informative than a single value.

MarkerTumourNote
Alpha-fetoproteinHepatocellular, yolk sac, non-seminomatous germ cellAlso raised in neural tube defects
Beta-hCGChoriocarcinoma, germ cell tumoursRaised in normal pregnancy
CA-125Ovarian epithelialRaised in endometriosis, pregnancy, cirrhosis
CA 19-9PancreaticNegative in Lewis antigen-negative individuals
CEAColorectalUsed for recurrence, not screening
PSAProstateRaised in benign hyperplasia and prostatitis
CalcitoninMedullary thyroid carcinomaAlso a screening test in MEN 2 families
Chromogranin ANeuroendocrine tumoursFalsely raised by proton pump inhibitors

A pure seminoma does not raise alpha-fetoprotein, so a raised value in a testicular tumour reported as seminoma means a non-seminomatous element has been missed, and management changes accordingly.

Calcitonin is the exception to the monitoring rule, since it is genuinely used to screen at-risk relatives in multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2.

7. Worked examples

Example 1

A patient develops fever, urticaria, arthralgia and haematuria ten days after receiving antivenom.

The timing is the first thing to use. Ten days is far too slow for a type I reaction and too fast for a chronic process.

Ten to fourteen days is precisely the interval needed to mount a primary antibody response against a foreign protein, after which antigen is still present and complexes form.

Multi-system involvement — joints, skin and kidney together — is the signature of circulating complexes depositing wherever they lodge.

The diagnosis is serum sickness, a type III hypersensitivity reaction, and complement levels will be low from consumption.

Example 2

A biopsy from a supraclavicular node shows a metastatic carcinoma. It stains positive for cytokeratin and thyroid transcription factor 1, and negative for CDX2 and PSA.

Cytokeratin positivity establishes that this is a carcinoma rather than a sarcoma or lymphoma.

Thyroid transcription factor 1 narrows the origin to lung or thyroid, and the negative CDX2 and PSA exclude colorectal and prostate primaries.

In a supraclavicular node the practical answer is lung adenocarcinoma, and thyroglobulin staining would be added to exclude a thyroid primary.

The panel has converted an undifferentiated deposit into a treatable diagnosis without any imaging.

Example 3

A 9-month-old boy has had three episodes of pneumococcal pneumonia. Tonsils are absent. Serum immunoglobulins of all classes are very low, and B cells are absent from the blood.

Encapsulated organisms and onset at around six months point to an antibody problem, since maternal IgG protects until then.

Absent tonsils indicate absent B cell follicles, meaning the defect is in B cell development rather than in antibody production by existing cells.

The diagnosis is Bruton X-linked agammaglobulinaemia, caused by a Bruton tyrosine kinase defect that arrests B cell maturation.

Hyper-IgM syndrome would show normal or raised IgM with present B cells, and common variable immunodeficiency presents far later.

8. Traps the exam sets repeatedly

Treating a positive antinuclear antibody as diagnostic of lupus. It is a sensitive screening test with poor specificity, and anti-double-stranded DNA or anti-Smith is needed to confirm.

Confusing linear with granular immunofluorescence. Linear means antibody against a fixed tissue antigen and therefore type II; granular means deposited immune complexes and therefore type III.

Giving adrenaline and antihistamines for hereditary angioedema. The mechanism is bradykinin from C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency, not histamine, so the response is poor and specific therapy is required.

Assuming S-100 confirms melanoma. S-100 also marks Schwannoma and Langerhans cell histiocytosis, so HMB-45 or Melan-A is needed for specificity.

Forgetting that IgA deficiency matters for transfusion. Patients with anti-IgA antibodies can have anaphylaxis to plasma-containing products, and require washed cells.

Summary

Two rules carry the chapter: timing names the immune mechanism, and a tumour keeps the markers of its parent cell.

Type I hypersensitivity takes minutes because mediators are preformed; type IV takes two to three days because T cells must traffic and recruit.

Type II and type III both involve antibody and are separated by whether the antigen is fixed in tissue or circulating, seen directly as linear versus granular immunofluorescence.

Antinuclear antibody screens for lupus; anti-double-stranded DNA and anti-Smith confirm it, and anti-histone indicates the drug-induced form.

The organism pattern identifies the failed arm: encapsulated bacteria for antibody, opportunists for T cells, catalase-positive organisms for phagocytes, Neisseria for terminal complement.

Hyper-IgM syndrome is recognised from the immunoglobulin pattern alone, since class switching fails while IgM production does not.

Transplant rejection is classified by timing, with hyperacute rejection occurring within minutes because the antibodies already exist.

Immunohistochemistry reads a metastasis backwards to its origin, and some markers decide treatment directly, as CD117 does for gastrointestinal stromal tumours.

Key formulas & results

Everything to memorise for the exam hall, in one card. Screenshot this for revision.

The two rules of this chapter
RULE 1 (immunopathology): TIMING NAMES THE MECHANISM. Each effector arm works at a fixed characteristic speed. RULE 2 (immunohistochemistry): A TUMOUR KEEPS THE MARKERS OF THE CELL IT CAME FROM, because transformation changes growth control, not lineage identity.
Between them these two rules replace most of the memorisation this topic appears to demand.
The four hypersensitivity types by speed
TYPE I: IgE on mast cells, MINUTES, anaphylaxis and atopy. TYPE II: antibody against a FIXED tissue antigen, hours to days, autoimmune haemolysis and Goodpasture. TYPE III: CIRCULATING immune complexes deposit, days to weeks, serum sickness and lupus nephritis. TYPE IV: T CELL mediated, 48-72 HOURS, tuberculin test and contact dermatitis.
Type I is minutes because HISTAMINE IS PREFORMED in granules and needs only IgE cross-linking. Type IV is days because T cells must traffic, recognise antigen and recruit macrophages. Type IV involves NO antibody, so it cannot be transferred with serum, only with cells.
Type II versus type III: antigen location decides
TYPE II antibody binds an antigen ALREADY FIXED in the tissue — immunofluorescence is SMOOTH LINEAR along the basement membrane. TYPE III antibody binds a SOLUBLE circulating antigen and the complex THEN DEPOSITS — immunofluorescence is GRANULAR or lumpy-bumpy.
Goodpasture (linear, anti-alpha-3 chain of type IV collagen) is the type II standard; post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (granular subepithelial humps) is the type III standard. Type III damages wherever complexes lodge, hence fever, arthralgia, rash and nephritis together.
The late phase of type I
IMMEDIATE phase = preformed HISTAMINE, minutes. LATE phase at 4-8 HOURS = newly synthesised LEUKOTRIENES and recruited EOSINOPHILS.
This is why antihistamines control the immediate phase but not the late one, and why leukotriene antagonists and steroids are needed for persistent asthma.
T-helper subsets and their cytokines
TH1: INTERFERON-GAMMA; macrophage activation, granulomas, type IV. TH2: IL-4, IL-5, IL-13; IgE class switching, eosinophils, type I. TH17: IL-17; neutrophil recruitment. TREG: FOXP3; suppression. IL-12 from macrophages drives naive T cells towards TH1.
TH1 and TH2 CROSS-INHIBIT, which underlies the hygiene hypothesis. TH17 failure explains chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis in hyper-IgE syndrome. FOXP3 mutation causes IPEX syndrome, severe multi-organ autoimmunity of infancy.
How tolerance fails
CENTRAL tolerance deletes self-reactive lymphocytes in thymus and marrow, requiring the AIRE gene so thymic epithelium can display peripheral tissue antigens. PERIPHERAL tolerance = regulatory T cells, ANERGY (antigen without costimulation), activation-induced cell death. MOLECULAR MIMICRY = rheumatic fever (streptococcal M protein cross-reacting with cardiac myosin). SEQUESTERED ANTIGEN RELEASE = sympathetic ophthalmia.
AIRE mutation causes autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome type 1, which proves central tolerance is an ACTIVE process rather than a passive absence of self-antigen.
Screening versus confirmatory autoantibodies in lupus
ANTINUCLEAR ANTIBODY is SENSITIVE but NOT SPECIFIC — a negative result largely excludes lupus, a positive one proves little. ANTI-dsDNA and ANTI-SMITH are SPECIFIC; anti-dsDNA also tracks disease activity and nephritis. ANTI-HISTONE indicates DRUG-INDUCED lupus (hydralazine, procainamide, isoniazid), which characteristically SPARES THE KIDNEY.
Almost every autoantibody question turns on this screening-versus-confirming distinction.
The autoantibody table
ANTI-CENTROMERE: limited scleroderma (CREST). ANTI-SCL-70 (topoisomerase I): diffuse scleroderma. ANTI-RO and ANTI-LA: Sjogren, neonatal lupus. ANTI-JO-1: polymyositis with interstitial lung disease. ANTI-MITOCHONDRIAL: primary biliary cholangitis. ANTI-SMOOTH MUSCLE: autoimmune hepatitis type 1. ANTI-TRANSGLUTAMINASE and ANTI-ENDOMYSIAL: coeliac. ANTI-CCP: rheumatoid, specific. c-ANCA (proteinase 3): granulomatosis with polyangiitis. p-ANCA (myeloperoxidase): microscopic polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis.
ANTI-RO CROSSES THE PLACENTA and causes CONGENITAL HEART BLOCK, which is why it is checked in pregnancy planning. Anti-CCP is more specific than rheumatoid factor and appears earlier.
HLA associations
B27: ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, IBD arthropathy. B57:01: ABACAVIR hypersensitivity. B15:02: CARBAMAZEPINE-induced Stevens-Johnson in South Asians. DQ2/DQ8: coeliac. DR3/DR4: type 1 diabetes. DR2: multiple sclerosis, Goodpasture. DR4: rheumatoid arthritis. A3: haemochromatosis. CLASS I (A, B, C) presents to CD8; CLASS II (DP, DQ, DR) presents to CD4.
B57:01 and B15:02 are the two with direct prescribing consequences — pre-treatment testing is now standard in the relevant populations.
The organism names the failed arm
ANTIBODY deficiency: ENCAPSULATED bacteria (pneumococcus, Haemophilus, Neisseria), starting around 6 MONTHS as maternal IgG wanes. T CELL deficiency: VIRAL, FUNGAL and OPPORTUNISTIC infection FROM BIRTH. PHAGOCYTE defects: CATALASE-POSITIVE bacteria and fungi, abscesses, poor healing. TERMINAL COMPLEMENT deficiency: recurrent NEISSERIAL infection specifically.
The 6-month onset in antibody deficiency is a mechanistic clue, not a coincidence — it is when transplacental maternal IgG runs out. Terminal complement matters only for Neisseria because the membrane attack complex is what kills it.
The named immunodeficiencies
BRUTON: X-linked, BTK defect, ABSENT B cells and ABSENT TONSILS. SELECTIVE IgA DEFICIENCY: COMMONEST primary immunodeficiency, often asymptomatic, matters for ANAPHYLAXIS TO BLOOD PRODUCTS. DIGEORGE: 22q11 deletion, thymic and parathyroid aplasia, HYPOCALCAEMIC TETANY plus conotruncal cardiac anomalies. SCID: both arms, failure to thrive and persistent candidiasis, fatal without transplant. WISKOTT-ALDRICH: X-linked, eczema, thrombocytopenia with SMALL platelets, infection. ATAXIA-TELANGIECTASIA: DNA repair defect, cerebellar ataxia, telangiectasia, RAISED ALPHA-FETOPROTEIN. HYPER-IgM: CD40 LIGAND defect, class switching fails.
In hyper-IgM syndrome IgM is NORMAL OR HIGH while IgG, IgA and IgE are LOW — the immunoglobulin pattern alone identifies it without any genetic test.
Complement pathways and their disorders
CLASSICAL activated by ANTIBODY, ALTERNATIVE by MICROBIAL SURFACES, LECTIN by MANNOSE. C3 is the convergence point of all three, so LOW C3 with NORMAL C4 suggests ALTERNATIVE pathway activation. HEREDITARY ANGIOEDEMA = C1 ESTERASE INHIBITOR deficiency: NON-PRURITIC angioedema, NO URTICARIA. PAROXYSMAL NOCTURNAL HAEMOGLOBINURIA = GPI ANCHOR defect losing CD55 and CD59, so complement lyses the cells.
Hereditary angioedema is BRADYKININ-mediated, not histamine-mediated, so it responds poorly to antihistamines and adrenaline. Flow cytometry for CD55 and CD59 has replaced the Ham test.
Transplant rejection by timing
HYPERACUTE: MINUTES, PREFORMED recipient antibodies. ACUTE CELLULAR: days to months, T cell mediated, lymphocytic infiltrate, responds to increased immunosuppression. ACUTE HUMORAL: days to months, donor-specific antibodies, C4d STAINING in peritubular capillaries. CHRONIC: months to years, VASCULAR INTIMAL FIBROSIS.
Hyperacute rejection happens ON THE OPERATING TABLE because the antibodies already exist — cross-matching exists to prevent exactly this. CHRONIC rejection is the one form that does NOT respond to immunosuppression, because the damage is fibrous narrowing rather than active inflammation.
Graft-versus-host disease
Donor T cells attack the RECIPIENT; targets SKIN, GUT and LIVER. Requires an IMMUNOCOMPETENT GRAFT and an IMMUNOCOMPROMISED HOST.
That requirement is why it complicates bone marrow rather than solid organ transplantation, and why blood products are IRRADIATED before transfusion into severely immunosuppressed patients.
The immunohistochemistry panel
CYTOKERATIN: epithelial (carcinoma). VIMENTIN: mesenchymal (sarcoma). DESMIN: muscle. S-100: melanoma, Schwannoma, Langerhans cells. HMB-45 and MELAN-A: melanoma, more specific. CD45 (leukocyte common antigen): lymphoma. CHROMOGRANIN and SYNAPTOPHYSIN: neuroendocrine. TTF-1: lung adenocarcinoma, thyroid. CDX2: colorectal. PSA: prostate. GFAP: glial. CD117 (c-KIT): gastrointestinal stromal tumour. CD31 and factor VIII: vascular endothelium. CALRETININ: mesothelioma. ALPHA-FETOPROTEIN: hepatocellular, yolk sac.
Lymphoma lineage markers: CD19 and CD20 for B cells, CD3 for T cells, CD15 and CD30 for Reed-Sternberg cells.
Panels that decide treatment directly
BREAST: oestrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, HER2 — determine endocrine therapy, trastuzumab, or neither. TRIPLE-NEGATIVE lacks all three and so has NO targeted option, hence the worse prognosis. CD117 positive gastric submucosal tumour = GASTROINTESTINAL STROMAL TUMOUR = IMATINIB. CALRETININ separates MESOTHELIOMA from adenocarcinoma in a pleural biopsy.
The mesothelioma distinction carries major medicolegal as well as clinical consequences.
Serum tumour markers: monitoring, not diagnosis
ALPHA-FETOPROTEIN: hepatocellular, yolk sac, non-seminomatous germ cell; also neural tube defects. BETA-hCG: choriocarcinoma, germ cell. CA-125: ovarian epithelial; also endometriosis, pregnancy, cirrhosis. CA 19-9: pancreatic; NEGATIVE in Lewis antigen-negative people. CEA: colorectal recurrence, NOT screening. PSA: also raised in benign hyperplasia and prostatitis. CALCITONIN: medullary thyroid carcinoma. CHROMOGRANIN A: neuroendocrine, falsely raised by proton pump inhibitors.
Their real value is MONITORING and detecting RECURRENCE — a marker that falls then rises is far more informative than a single value. A raised AFP in a tumour reported as pure SEMINOMA means a NON-SEMINOMATOUS ELEMENT WAS MISSED. Calcitonin is the exception, genuinely used to screen MEN 2 relatives.
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Traps NEET PG sets — and how to dodge them

These are the exact option-traps and misreads that cost marks under negative marking.

WATCH OUT
Treating a positive antinuclear antibody as diagnostic of lupus
It is a sensitive screening test with poor specificity, positive in many healthy people and in other connective tissue diseases. Anti-double-stranded DNA or anti-Smith is required to confirm, and anti-double-stranded DNA additionally tracks disease activity.
WATCH OUT
Confusing linear with granular immunofluorescence
Linear staining means antibody bound to an antigen already fixed in the tissue, which is type II. Granular or lumpy-bumpy staining means immune complexes that formed in the circulation and then deposited, which is type III.
WATCH OUT
Managing hereditary angioedema as an allergic reaction
The mediator is bradykinin from C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency, not histamine, so antihistamines and adrenaline work poorly. The absence of urticaria and itching alongside the angioedema is the clue that it is not allergic.
WATCH OUT
Accepting S-100 positivity as proof of melanoma
S-100 also marks Schwannoma and Langerhans cell histiocytosis. HMB-45 or Melan-A is required for specificity, which is why panels rather than single stains are used.
WATCH OUT
Overlooking IgA deficiency before transfusion
Patients with anti-IgA antibodies can develop anaphylaxis to plasma-containing products. They require washed cells or IgA-deficient donor plasma, and this is the main clinical consequence of an otherwise often asymptomatic condition.
WATCH OUT
Assuming a raised tumour marker makes the diagnosis
Almost every serum marker has benign causes of elevation — CA-125 in endometriosis and cirrhosis, PSA in benign hyperplasia, chromogranin A with proton pump inhibitors. Markers are for monitoring and recurrence detection, not diagnosis.
WATCH OUT
Expecting antibody deficiency to present at birth
Transplacental maternal IgG protects the infant for roughly six months, so antibody deficiencies characteristically declare themselves after that. T cell deficiencies present from birth because maternal antibody offers no protection against viruses and fungi.
WATCH OUT
Treating chronic rejection with increased immunosuppression
Chronic rejection is established vascular intimal fibrosis rather than active inflammation, so it does not respond. Only acute cellular and acute humoral rejection are reversible with intensified therapy.
WATCH OUT
Reading a raised alpha-fetoprotein in a reported pure seminoma as incidental
Pure seminoma does not produce alpha-fetoprotein. A raised value means a non-seminomatous element is present but was not sampled, and the tumour must be managed as non-seminomatous.

Exam-pattern practice

PYQ-style questions with full solutions. Work through them as a readiness check — mark yourself honestly and get your gap report at the end.

Readiness check

Are you exam-ready for Immunopathology & IHC Markers?

9 problems from this chapter. Try each one, reveal the worked solution, mark yourself honestly — get your gap report at the end.

9 questions~6 min

5-minute revision

The whole chapter, distilled. Read this the night before the exam.

  • Timing names the immune mechanism; lineage names the immunohistochemical marker.
  • Type I takes minutes because histamine is preformed; the late phase at four to eight hours is leukotriene and eosinophil driven.
  • Type IV takes 48 to 72 hours because T cells must traffic and recruit, and involves no antibody at all.
  • Type II antigen is fixed in tissue and stains linear; type III antigen is circulating and stains granular.
  • TH1 makes interferon-gamma and drives granulomas; TH2 makes IL-4, IL-5 and IL-13 and drives IgE.
  • FOXP3 mutation causes IPEX syndrome; AIRE mutation causes autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome type 1.
  • Molecular mimicry explains rheumatic fever; sequestered antigen release explains sympathetic ophthalmia.
  • Antinuclear antibody screens, anti-dsDNA and anti-Smith confirm, anti-histone means drug-induced with renal sparing.
  • Anti-Ro crosses the placenta and causes congenital heart block.
  • HLA class I presents to CD8, class II to CD4; B57:01 and B15:02 have direct prescribing consequences.
  • Encapsulated organisms from six months means antibody deficiency; opportunists from birth means T cell deficiency.
  • Catalase-positive organisms mean a phagocyte defect; recurrent Neisseria means terminal complement deficiency.
  • Bruton disease has absent B cells and absent tonsils; hyper-IgM has raised IgM with everything else low.
  • Selective IgA deficiency is the commonest primary immunodeficiency and matters for transfusion anaphylaxis.
  • Hereditary angioedema is bradykinin-mediated with no urticaria and does not respond like an allergic reaction.
  • Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria is a GPI anchor defect losing CD55 and CD59, diagnosed by flow cytometry.
  • Hyperacute rejection occurs in minutes from preformed antibody; C4d staining identifies acute humoral rejection.
  • Chronic rejection is fibrosis and does not respond to immunosuppression.
  • Graft-versus-host disease needs an immunocompetent graft and immunocompromised host, hence blood product irradiation.
  • Cytokeratin means carcinoma, vimentin sarcoma, CD45 lymphoma, HMB-45 melanoma, calretinin mesothelioma.
  • Breast receptor status and CD117 are stains that determine drug choice directly.
  • Serum tumour markers are for monitoring and recurrence, not diagnosis; raised alpha-fetoprotein excludes pure seminoma.

NEET PG question blueprint

How this topic is asked, tier by tier — so you can prep to the pattern.

Typical weightage: Each NEET PG question is worth +4/-1; immunopathology and immunohistochemistry together contribute 2-3 questions per attempt, with marker panels recurring in clinical subject stems

Question styleMarks eachTypical countWhat it tests
Hypersensitivity4~1The four types by timing, type II versus type III, immunofluorescence patterns, T-helper subsets
Autoimmunity and HLA4~1Tolerance failure, screening versus confirmatory antibodies, the autoantibody table, HLA associations
Immunodeficiency4~1Organism pattern and age at onset, the named syndromes, immunoglobulin class patterns
Transplant and complement4~1Rejection types by timing, C4d, graft-versus-host disease, complement pathways and their disorders
IHC and tumour markers4~1Marker panels for tissue of origin, stains that determine treatment, serum markers and their proper use
Prep strategy
  • First pass: learn the two governing rules and check that you can explain why each hypersensitivity type takes the time it does, rather than memorising the timings.
  • Second pass: memorise the three tables — autoantibodies, HLA associations and immunohistochemical markers — since these are pure recall and cannot be reasoned out under time pressure.
  • Final pass: work marker-panel vignettes and immunodeficiency vignettes, which are where the exam increasingly places this material rather than asking direct definitional questions.

Exam-hall strategy

Battle-tested tips from mentors and toppers for this topic under the sectional clock.

  1. Find the time interval in any hypersensitivity or rejection stem before reading the options; it usually settles the answer alone.
  2. For immunofluorescence questions, translate the pattern first — linear means fixed antigen, granular means deposited complexes.
  3. In immunodeficiency stems, read the organism and the age together, since each independently identifies the failed arm and they should agree.
  4. For autoantibody questions, decide whether the antibody named is a screening or a confirmatory test before choosing.
  5. Work immunohistochemistry panels from lineage to organ, and use the negative stains actively rather than ignoring them.
  6. Treat any raised tumour marker in a stem as a monitoring value unless the question explicitly concerns screening a high-risk family.
  7. With NEET PG's +4/-1 marking, the HLA and marker tables are pure recall and among the fastest marks in the paper; do not overthink them.
  8. Under the 5-group, 42-minute time-bound format, answer the table-based recall items immediately and reserve remaining time for the reasoning stems, since a closed group cannot be revisited.

Beyond the exam

Where this skill shows up in the job you're competing for — and in life.

Pharmacogenomic testing before prescribing

HLA-B57:01 testing before abacavir and HLA-B15:02 before carbamazepine in South Asian populations are routine safety measures derived directly from these associations.

Carcinoma of unknown primary

An immunohistochemistry panel on a metastatic deposit frequently identifies the primary site and determines treatment when imaging has failed to.

Pre-transplant cross-matching

Detecting preformed recipient antibodies before surgery is what prevents hyperacute rejection, an otherwise immediate and irreversible graft loss.

Managing anti-Ro positive pregnancy

Serial fetal echocardiography in anti-Ro positive women exists because the antibody crosses the placenta and can cause congenital heart block.

Where else this topic is tested

Prepare once, score in every exam that asks it.

USMLE Step 1Very high overlap — hypersensitivity, immunodeficiency and tolerance are core Step 1 content with identical framing
FMGE / NExTVery high overlap, with heavier emphasis on the antibody and marker tables
MD Pathology and MD Medicine entranceFoundational — assumed working knowledge, with immunohistochemistry used daily in reporting

Questions aspirants ask

Pulled from the Q&A community and mentor sessions.

Because each mechanism has a rate-limiting step that cannot be hurried. Type I uses mediators already sitting in granules, so it needs only receptor cross-linking and takes minutes. Type II and III need antibody, which either already exists or takes days to generate, and complexes then need time to deposit. Type IV requires T cells to find the antigen, proliferate and recruit macrophages, which takes two to three days regardless of dose. The clock in the stem is measuring the slowest step.

Work from broad to narrow, and treat negatives as informative. Start with the lineage question: cytokeratin for carcinoma, vimentin for sarcoma, CD45 for lymphoma, S-100 with HMB-45 for melanoma. Then use organ-specific markers to localise: TTF-1, CDX2, PSA, GFAP. The negatives matter as much as the positives, since excluding colorectal and prostatic origin is what makes a TTF-1 positive node convincingly pulmonary.

Because it is a direct readout of which arm has failed. Maternal IgG crosses the placenta and protects the infant for roughly six months, so an antibody deficiency cannot declare itself before that. A T cell deficiency has no such cover, since maternal antibody does not protect against intracellular viruses, fungi or opportunists, and therefore presents from birth. The age in the stem is doing the same work the organism list does.

Because the exam is testing whether you know their actual role. Almost every marker has benign causes of elevation, so a single raised value proves nothing. What markers do well is track a known tumour: a value that falls with treatment and later rises indicates recurrence long before imaging does. Questions are usually constructed around a candidate who treats the marker as diagnostic, and the correct answer is the one that uses it for monitoring instead.
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