By the end of this chapter you'll be able to…

  • 1Apply the cell-line, production-versus-destruction and maturation-block sequence to any abnormal blood count
  • 2Explain why mean corpuscular volume identifies the type of maturation defect, and use it to structure the anaemia differential
  • 3Discriminate iron deficiency, anaemia of chronic disease and thalassaemia trait using ferritin, iron binding capacity and red cell count
  • 4Separate vitamin B12 from folate deficiency using methylmalonic acid, and explain the danger of giving folate alone
  • 5Localise haemolysis as intravascular or extravascular and classify it into membrane, enzyme, haemoglobin and immune groups
  • 6Distinguish platelet-type from coagulation-type bleeding on phenotype alone, and interpret a mixing study
  • 7State the WHO 2022 position on blast thresholds in acute myeloid leukaemia and the two entities that remain exceptions
  • 8Match each leukaemia and lymphoma to its defining genetic lesion and characteristic morphology
  • 9Identify transfusion reactions by timing and dominant feature, and separate lung injury from circulatory overload
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Why this chapter matters in NEET PG
Haematology is examined through numbers rather than descriptions — a blood count, a smear finding and one or two special tests are usually all a stem provides. Three questions asked in order resolve almost every one of them: which cell line is affected, is the problem production or destruction, and at what stage is the maturation block. The framework works because the marrow is an assembly line, and a disease either damages a line, removes finished product faster than it is made, or halts the line at one station.

Hematology & Hematological Malignancies

1. What this chapter covers, and how NEET PG actually tests it

Haematology is the highest-yield block within pathology, and it is examined through numbers rather than descriptions.

A blood count, a peripheral smear finding, and one or two special tests are usually all a stem provides.

Three questions, asked in that order, resolve almost every one of them: which cell line, production or destruction, and where is the maturation block.

The framework works because the bone marrow is an assembly line. A disease either damages a line, removes finished product faster than it is made, or halts the line at a specific station.

AreaThe question actually being askedUsual clue
AnaemiaWhich maturation defectMean corpuscular volume
Iron disordersStorage, transport or utilisationFerritin with transferrin saturation
HaemolysisIntravascular or extravascularHaptoglobin and urine findings
BleedingPlatelet or coagulation phenotypeSite and timing of bleeding
Acute leukaemiaMyeloid or lymphoidCytochemistry and immunophenotype
Chronic myeloid disordersWhich driver mutationA named translocation or JAK2
LymphomaHodgkin or non-HodgkinReed-Sternberg cells, pattern of spread

2. Anaemia: the maturation stage tells you the cause

2.1 Why mean corpuscular volume works

Red cell size is set by how many divisions the precursor completes before haemoglobin concentration triggers it to stop.

Too little haemoglobin means extra divisions and a small cell; impaired DNA synthesis means too few divisions and a large cell.

That single mechanism is why microcytosis always implies a haemoglobin production problem and macrocytosis always implies a nuclear maturation problem.

2.2 Microcytic anaemia

The four causes are iron deficiency, thalassaemia, anaemia of chronic disease, and sideroblastic anaemia.

Each fails at a different point in haemoglobin assembly: iron supply, globin chain synthesis, iron release from stores, and haem synthesis respectively.

TestIron deficiencyChronic diseaseThalassaemia trait
Serum ironLowLowNormal
FerritinLowHighNormal
Total iron binding capacityHighLowNormal
Transferrin saturationLowLow or normalNormal
Red cell countLowLowNormal or high

Ferritin is the discriminator between the two commonest causes, because it is an acute phase reactant and rises in inflammation while stores are being withheld from the marrow.

Hepcidin is the mediator of that withholding: inflammation raises hepcidin, which degrades ferroportin and traps iron inside macrophages and enterocytes.

In thalassaemia trait, the red cell count is preserved or raised despite microcytosis, which no other cause reproduces.

Sideroblastic anaemia shows ring sideroblasts on Perls staining of marrow, and is caused by lead, alcohol, isoniazid, or a congenital delta-aminolaevulinate synthase defect.

2.3 Macrocytic anaemia

Megaloblastic causes show hypersegmented neutrophils and result from vitamin B12 or folate deficiency.

Both vitamins feed the same reaction, so the anaemias are indistinguishable haematologically. Only the neurology separates them.

Methylmalonic acid is raised in B12 deficiency and normal in folate deficiency, because only B12 serves the methylmalonyl-CoA mutase reaction.

Homocysteine is raised in both, since both are required for the methionine synthase reaction.

Subacute combined degeneration affects the dorsal columns and corticospinal tracts, and giving folate alone to a B12-deficient patient corrects the anaemia while the neurology progresses.

Non-megaloblastic macrocytosis occurs in alcohol, liver disease, hypothyroidism and reticulocytosis, and lacks hypersegmentation.

2.4 Normocytic anaemia

Here the reticulocyte count divides the group cleanly.

A high reticulocyte count means the marrow is responding, so the problem is haemolysis or blood loss.

A low reticulocyte count means the marrow is not responding, pointing to aplastic anaemia, marrow infiltration, renal failure or early chronic disease.

2.5 When all three lines fall

Pancytopenia narrows the differential sharply, because a disease must affect the stem cell or the marrow space itself to lower every line at once.

Aplastic anaemia gives a hypocellular marrow replaced by fat, with no abnormal cells and a low reticulocyte count.

Marrow infiltration by leukaemia, lymphoma, myeloma or carcinoma gives a cellular marrow with the normal elements crowded out, and often a leukoerythroblastic film.

Megaloblastic anaemia is the reversible cause worth remembering, since impaired DNA synthesis affects every dividing lineage, not only the red cells.

Hypersplenism lowers all three lines by sequestration while the marrow remains normal or hyperplastic.

3. Haemolysis

3.1 Locating the destruction

Intravascular haemolysis consumes haptoglobin and spills free haemoglobin into urine, giving haemoglobinuria and later haemosiderinuria.

Extravascular haemolysis occurs in the spleen, so haptoglobin falls less, and splenomegaly with unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia dominates.

Lactate dehydrogenase and unconjugated bilirubin rise in both.

3.2 The four mechanistic groups

GroupExamplesIdentifying test
MembraneHereditary spherocytosisOsmotic fragility, EMA binding
EnzymeG6PD deficiency, pyruvate kinase deficiencyEnzyme assay, Heinz bodies
HaemoglobinSickle cell disease, thalassaemiaElectrophoresis, HPLC
Immune or mechanicalAutoimmune haemolysis, microangiopathyCoombs test, schistocytes

The direct Coombs test is the single most useful branch point, separating immune from all non-immune causes.

Warm autoimmune haemolysis is IgG-mediated, extravascular, and associated with lupus, chronic lymphocytic leukaemia and methyldopa.

Cold agglutinin disease is IgM-mediated, complement-fixing, and associated with mycoplasma and infectious mononucleosis.

Hereditary spherocytosis is a defect of ankyrin or spectrin, giving spherocytes, raised mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration and a negative Coombs test.

G6PD deficiency is X-linked, produces bite cells and Heinz bodies after oxidant stress, and the enzyme assay is falsely normal during an acute episode because the deficient old cells have already been destroyed.

3.3 The haemoglobinopathies

Sickle cell disease is a single point mutation replacing glutamate with valine at position six of the beta globin chain.

The valine is hydrophobic, so deoxygenated haemoglobin S polymerises into rigid fibres that deform the cell, and repeated sickling makes the deformity permanent.

Fetal haemoglobin inhibits polymerisation, which is why infants are protected until around six months and why hydroxyurea, which raises fetal haemoglobin, reduces crisis frequency.

Heterozygotes are protected against falciparum malaria, which explains the mutation's persistence at high frequency in endemic regions.

Autosplenectomy from repeated infarction leaves patients functionally asplenic, hence the vulnerability to encapsulated organisms and the need for pneumococcal vaccination.

Thalassaemias are quantitative rather than qualitative defects, with reduced synthesis of structurally normal chains.

Beta thalassaemia major presents after six months as fetal haemoglobin declines, with extramedullary haematopoiesis producing frontal bossing and a hair-on-end skull appearance.

Alpha thalassaemia severity depends on how many of the four genes are deleted, with three deletions giving haemoglobin H disease and four giving hydrops fetalis.

4. Haemostasis and bleeding disorders

4.1 Phenotype localises the defect

Platelet-type bleeding is mucocutaneous, immediate, and superficial: petechiae, epistaxis, menorrhagia.

Coagulation-factor bleeding is deep and delayed: haemarthrosis, muscle haematoma, rebleeding after initial haemostasis.

That distinction is often enough to answer without any laboratory value.

4.2 The screening tests

Prothrombin time tests the extrinsic and common pathways; activated partial thromboplastin time tests the intrinsic and common pathways.

An isolated prolonged prothrombin time points to factor VII, the shortest half-life factor, which is why it moves first in warfarin therapy and liver disease.

An isolated prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time points to factors VIII, IX, XI or XII, or to a lupus anticoagulant.

A mixing study separates deficiency from inhibitor: correction implies deficiency, failure to correct implies an inhibitor.

Both times prolonged suggests a common pathway defect, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or severe liver disease.

4.3 The named disorders

Haemophilia A is factor VIII deficiency and haemophilia B is factor IX deficiency; both are X-linked with a coagulation phenotype and a prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time.

Von Willebrand disease is the commonest inherited bleeding disorder, autosomal dominant, and produces a platelet phenotype because von Willebrand factor mediates platelet adhesion.

It may also prolong the activated partial thromboplastin time, since von Willebrand factor carries and stabilises factor VIII.

Immune thrombocytopenic purpura follows infection in children and is chronic in adults, with antiplatelet antibodies and increased marrow megakaryocytes.

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura results from ADAMTS13 deficiency, so ultralarge von Willebrand multimers persist and cause microangiopathy.

Disseminated intravascular coagulation is the one condition where everything is abnormal at once: low platelets, prolonged times, low fibrinogen, and raised D-dimer.

Bernard-Soulier syndrome is a GPIb defect impairing adhesion, with large platelets; Glanzmann thrombasthenia is a GPIIb-IIIa defect impairing aggregation, with normal platelet size.

4.4 Transfusion reactions

Transfusion reactions are separated by their timing and by one dominant feature each.

ReactionTimingMechanism
Acute haemolyticMinutesABO incompatibility, usually clerical error
Febrile non-haemolytic1 to 6 hoursRecipient antibodies against donor leukocytes
AnaphylacticMinutesIgA deficiency with anti-IgA antibodies
Transfusion-related lung injuryWithin 6 hoursDonor antibodies activating recipient neutrophils
Delayed haemolyticDays to weeksAnamnestic response to a minor antigen

Fever with back pain and dark urine during a transfusion is an acute haemolytic reaction until proved otherwise, and the transfusion must be stopped immediately.

Transfusion-related acute lung injury and circulatory overload both present with breathlessness, and are separated by the jugular venous pressure, which is raised only in overload.

Leukodepletion has substantially reduced febrile non-haemolytic reactions, which were the commonest type before it became routine.

5. Acute leukaemias

5.1 The defining lesion

An acute leukaemia is a maturation block at the blast stage, so blasts accumulate while mature cells disappear.

The traditional threshold is 20 per cent blasts in blood or marrow.

Under the WHO 2022 classification the blast threshold has been removed for acute myeloid leukaemias with a defining genetic abnormality, with AML carrying BCR-ABL1 or a CEBPA mutation retained as the exceptions that still require 20 per cent.

The BCR-ABL1 exception exists specifically to avoid overlap with chronic myeloid leukaemia in blast crisis.

5.2 Separating myeloid from lymphoid

Myeloperoxidase positivity and Auer rods indicate myeloid lineage; periodic acid-Schiff block positivity and TdT indicate lymphoid lineage.

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia is the commonest childhood malignancy, peaks at two to five years, and frequently involves the central nervous system and testis.

Its good prognostic markers are hyperdiploidy and the t(12;21) translocation; the t(9;22) Philadelphia translocation carries the worst prognosis.

Acute promyelocytic leukaemia carries t(15;17), fusing PML with the retinoic acid receptor alpha gene, and presents with disseminated intravascular coagulation from granule release.

All-trans retinoic acid overcomes the maturation block directly, which makes acute promyelocytic leukaemia the one acute leukaemia treated by forcing differentiation rather than by killing cells.

6. Chronic myeloid disorders

6.1 Chronic myeloid leukaemia

The Philadelphia chromosome, t(9;22), creates a BCR-ABL1 fusion with constitutive tyrosine kinase activity.

The blood shows marked leukocytosis with the full spectrum of maturation, basophilia, and a characteristically low leukocyte alkaline phosphatase.

Imatinib and its successors inhibit the fusion kinase, and the WHO 2022 classification has removed the accelerated phase, recognising two phases with defined blast phase criteria.

6.2 The JAK2-driven neoplasms

Polycythaemia vera, essential thrombocythaemia and primary myelofibrosis share activating JAK2 mutations, present in nearly all cases of polycythaemia vera.

Polycythaemia vera has a raised red cell mass with a low erythropoietin, which separates it from every secondary polycythaemia.

Aquagenic pruritus after a hot bath is its classic symptom, and thrombosis is the main cause of death.

Primary myelofibrosis shows marrow fibrosis, a leukoerythroblastic film with tear-drop cells, and massive splenomegaly from extramedullary haematopoiesis.

6.3 Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is a mature B cell neoplasm, the commonest leukaemia of adults in Western populations, and is frequently found incidentally.

Smudge cells on the film are characteristic, and autoimmune haemolytic anaemia is a recognised complication.

Richter transformation to a high-grade lymphoma is the feared outcome.

Hairy cell leukaemia shows TRAP positivity, a dry tap on aspiration, and splenomegaly without lymphadenopathy.

7. Lymphoma and myeloma

7.1 Hodgkin versus non-Hodgkin

Hodgkin lymphoma spreads contiguously from one nodal group to the next; non-Hodgkin lymphoma spreads unpredictably and involves extranodal sites far more often.

Reed-Sternberg cells are the diagnostic cell of Hodgkin lymphoma, with an owl-eye binucleate appearance and CD15 and CD30 positivity.

Nodular sclerosis is the commonest subtype and affects young women; lymphocyte-rich carries the best prognosis and lymphocyte-depleted the worst.

Alcohol-induced nodal pain is an uncommon but highly specific Hodgkin feature.

7.2 The translocations worth knowing

LymphomaTranslocationGene
Folliculart(14;18)BCL2
Burkittt(8;14)MYC
Mantle cellt(11;14)Cyclin D1

Burkitt lymphoma has a starry-sky appearance from tingible body macrophages, the highest proliferation index of any tumour, and an endemic jaw form associated with Epstein-Barr virus.

7.3 Multiple myeloma

Myeloma is a plasma cell neoplasm producing a monoclonal immunoglobulin, and its features are captured by the CRAB criteria: hypercalcaemia, renal impairment, anaemia and bone lesions.

The bone lesions are punched-out and lytic with no osteoblastic reaction, which is why the isotope bone scan is characteristically negative.

Rouleaux formation, a raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate and Bence Jones proteinuria complete the picture.

The urine dipstick is negative in Bence Jones proteinuria because it detects albumin rather than light chains, so a negative dipstick with heavy proteinuria on quantitative testing is itself the clue.

8. Worked examples

Example 1

A 30-year-old woman has haemoglobin 9 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume 68 fL, red cell count 5.8 million, and a normal ferritin.

Microcytosis means a haemoglobin production problem, so the differential is the four microcytic causes.

The normal ferritin excludes iron deficiency, and chronic disease would show a raised ferritin with a low iron binding capacity.

The raised red cell count despite microcytosis is the decisive finding, since iron deficiency lowers the count while thalassaemia trait preserves or raises it.

The answer is beta thalassaemia trait, confirmed by a raised haemoglobin A2 on electrophoresis.

Example 2

A boy develops dark urine and jaundice two days after starting primaquine. The film shows bite cells.

Bite cells arise when splenic macrophages remove Heinz bodies, which are precipitated denatured haemoglobin.

That sequence requires oxidative stress in a cell that cannot regenerate reduced glutathione, which localises the defect to the pentose phosphate pathway.

The diagnosis is G6PD deficiency, and an enzyme assay taken now may be falsely normal because the most deficient cells have already been destroyed and the surviving young cells have higher enzyme levels.

Repeating the assay several weeks after recovery is what confirms it.

Example 3

A patient bleeds after dental extraction. Platelet count and prothrombin time are normal; the activated partial thromboplastin time is prolonged and corrects fully on mixing with normal plasma.

Correction on mixing means a factor is missing rather than inhibited.

An isolated prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time with a normal prothrombin time localises the defect to the intrinsic pathway: factors VIII, IX, XI or XII.

Factor XII deficiency prolongs the test but causes no bleeding, so it is excluded by the clinical history.

The bleeding phenotype and the isolated intrinsic prolongation point to haemophilia A or B, distinguished by specific factor assay.

9. Traps the exam sets repeatedly

Using ferritin alone to diagnose iron deficiency. Ferritin is an acute phase reactant, so a normal or raised value in an inflamed patient does not exclude iron deficiency; transferrin saturation is more reliable there.

Giving folate to a patient who may be B12 deficient. The anaemia corrects while subacute combined degeneration progresses, and the opportunity to recognise it is lost.

Reading a normal G6PD assay during an acute haemolytic episode as excluding the diagnosis. The deficient cells have already been removed.

Expecting a positive bone scan in myeloma. The lesions are purely lytic with no osteoblastic response, so plain radiography or whole-body imaging is used instead.

Assuming a prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time means bleeding risk. Factor XII deficiency and lupus anticoagulant both prolong it, and the lupus anticoagulant is associated with thrombosis rather than bleeding.

Summary

Three questions resolve most haematology: which cell line, production or destruction, and where is the maturation block.

Mean corpuscular volume reflects the number of precursor divisions, so microcytosis means a haemoglobin problem and macrocytosis a nuclear maturation problem.

Ferritin separates iron deficiency from anaemia of chronic disease, and a preserved red cell count identifies thalassaemia trait.

Methylmalonic acid separates B12 from folate deficiency, and only B12 deficiency causes subacute combined degeneration.

Haptoglobin and urine findings locate haemolysis, and the direct Coombs test separates immune from non-immune causes.

Platelet-type bleeding is mucocutaneous and immediate; factor-type bleeding is deep and delayed, and a mixing study separates deficiency from inhibitor.

Acute leukaemia is a blast-stage maturation block, and WHO 2022 has removed the 20 per cent threshold for genetically defined acute myeloid leukaemias apart from the BCR-ABL1 and CEBPA entities.

Acute promyelocytic leukaemia carries t(15;17), presents with disseminated intravascular coagulation, and is treated by forcing differentiation with all-trans retinoic acid.

Chronic myeloid leukaemia is defined by BCR-ABL1 with a low leukocyte alkaline phosphatase, while polycythaemia vera, essential thrombocythaemia and myelofibrosis are JAK2-driven.

Hodgkin lymphoma spreads contiguously and contains Reed-Sternberg cells; myeloma produces purely lytic lesions with a negative bone scan and a negative urine dipstick despite heavy light chain loss.

Key formulas & results

Everything to memorise for the exam hall, in one card. Screenshot this for revision.

The three-question framework
For any abnormal count ask, IN ORDER: (1) WHICH CELL LINE is affected? (2) Is this a PRODUCTION or a DESTRUCTION problem? (3) At WHAT MATURATION STAGE is the block?
The marrow is an assembly line. A disease either damages a line, removes finished product faster than it is made, or halts the line at a specific station.
Why mean corpuscular volume works
Cell size is set by how many divisions the precursor completes before haemoglobin concentration signals it to stop. TOO LITTLE HAEMOGLOBIN = extra divisions = SMALL cell. IMPAIRED DNA SYNTHESIS = too few divisions = LARGE cell.
So microcytosis ALWAYS means a haemoglobin production problem and macrocytosis ALWAYS means a nuclear maturation problem. This is the mechanism, not a mnemonic.
Microcytic anaemia: the discriminating table
IRON DEFICIENCY: iron LOW, ferritin LOW, TIBC HIGH, saturation LOW, red cell count LOW. CHRONIC DISEASE: iron LOW, ferritin HIGH, TIBC LOW, red cell count LOW. THALASSAEMIA TRAIT: iron NORMAL, ferritin NORMAL, TIBC NORMAL, red cell count NORMAL OR HIGH.
FERRITIN separates the two commonest causes because it is an acute phase reactant. HEPCIDIN is the mediator: inflammation raises hepcidin, which degrades ferroportin and traps iron in macrophages and enterocytes. A preserved red cell count despite microcytosis is unique to thalassaemia trait.
Sideroblastic anaemia
Failure of HAEM synthesis. RING SIDEROBLASTS on Perls staining of marrow. Causes: LEAD, ALCOHOL, ISONIAZID, congenital delta-aminolaevulinate synthase defect.
The four microcytic causes each fail at a different point of haemoglobin assembly: iron supply, globin synthesis, iron release from stores, and haem synthesis.
B12 versus folate
BOTH feed methionine synthase, so HOMOCYSTEINE rises in both and the anaemias are haematologically identical. Only B12 serves methylmalonyl-CoA mutase, so METHYLMALONIC ACID is RAISED in B12 deficiency and NORMAL in folate deficiency.
SUBACUTE COMBINED DEGENERATION affects dorsal columns and corticospinal tracts. Giving FOLATE ALONE to a B12-deficient patient CORRECTS THE ANAEMIA WHILE THE NEUROLOGY PROGRESSES — the single most dangerous error in this topic.
Normocytic anaemia: the reticulocyte split
HIGH reticulocytes = marrow responding = HAEMOLYSIS or BLOOD LOSS. LOW reticulocytes = marrow not responding = APLASTIC ANAEMIA, marrow INFILTRATION, RENAL FAILURE, early chronic disease.
One number splits the largest anaemia category in half.
Pancytopenia: four mechanisms
APLASTIC ANAEMIA: hypocellular marrow replaced by fat, no abnormal cells. INFILTRATION (leukaemia, lymphoma, myeloma, carcinoma): CELLULAR marrow, normal elements crowded out, leukoerythroblastic film. MEGALOBLASTIC ANAEMIA: impaired DNA synthesis affects every dividing lineage. HYPERSPLENISM: sequestration with a normal or hyperplastic marrow.
Megaloblastic anaemia is the reversible cause and the one most often missed, because candidates associate B12 and folate only with red cells.
Locating haemolysis
INTRAVASCULAR: haptoglobin CONSUMED, free haemoglobin spills into urine giving HAEMOGLOBINURIA then HAEMOSIDERINURIA. EXTRAVASCULAR: occurs in the SPLEEN, haptoglobin falls less, SPLENOMEGALY with UNCONJUGATED hyperbilirubinaemia. LDH and unconjugated bilirubin rise in BOTH.
Haptoglobin and the urine are what localise the site; LDH and bilirubin only confirm that haemolysis is occurring.
The four haemolysis groups and the Coombs branch point
MEMBRANE (hereditary spherocytosis): osmotic fragility, EMA binding. ENZYME (G6PD, pyruvate kinase): enzyme assay, Heinz bodies. HAEMOGLOBIN (sickle, thalassaemia): electrophoresis, HPLC. IMMUNE or MECHANICAL: COOMBS test, schistocytes.
The DIRECT COOMBS TEST is the single most useful branch point, separating immune from all non-immune causes. WARM autoimmune = IgG, extravascular, lupus/CLL/methyldopa. COLD agglutinin = IgM, complement-fixing, mycoplasma/infectious mononucleosis.
G6PD deficiency and the false-normal assay
X-LINKED. Oxidant stress gives HEINZ BODIES (precipitated denatured haemoglobin), which splenic macrophages remove to leave BITE CELLS. The enzyme assay is FALSELY NORMAL during an acute episode.
The falsely normal result occurs because the most deficient old cells have already been destroyed and the surviving young cells have higher enzyme levels. Repeat the assay several weeks after recovery.
Sickle cell disease
Point mutation: GLUTAMATE to VALINE at position 6 of the BETA globin chain. Valine is HYDROPHOBIC, so DEOXYGENATED haemoglobin S POLYMERISES into rigid fibres. FETAL HAEMOGLOBIN INHIBITS POLYMERISATION.
Hence protection until about 6 months, and hence hydroxyurea works by raising fetal haemoglobin. Heterozygotes are protected against falciparum malaria. AUTOSPLENECTOMY from repeated infarction leaves patients functionally asplenic and vulnerable to encapsulated organisms.
Thalassaemias
QUANTITATIVE defects — reduced synthesis of structurally NORMAL chains. BETA THALASSAEMIA MAJOR presents AFTER 6 MONTHS as fetal haemoglobin declines; extramedullary haematopoiesis gives FRONTAL BOSSING and a HAIR-ON-END skull. ALPHA severity depends on how many of FOUR genes are deleted: three gives haemoglobin H disease, four gives HYDROPS FETALIS.
Beta thalassaemia trait shows a raised haemoglobin A2 on electrophoresis, which is the confirmatory test.
Bleeding phenotype localises the defect
PLATELET-TYPE: MUCOCUTANEOUS, IMMEDIATE, SUPERFICIAL — petechiae, epistaxis, menorrhagia. COAGULATION-FACTOR TYPE: DEEP and DELAYED — haemarthrosis, muscle haematoma, rebleeding after initial haemostasis.
This distinction is often sufficient to answer with no laboratory value at all.
Interpreting PT, aPTT and the mixing study
PT tests EXTRINSIC and common; aPTT tests INTRINSIC and common. ISOLATED PROLONGED PT = factor VII (shortest half-life, so it moves first in warfarin and liver disease). ISOLATED PROLONGED aPTT = factor VIII, IX, XI, XII, or lupus anticoagulant. MIXING STUDY: CORRECTS = deficiency; FAILS TO CORRECT = inhibitor.
Both prolonged suggests a common pathway defect, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or severe liver disease.
The named bleeding disorders
HAEMOPHILIA A = factor VIII, HAEMOPHILIA B = factor IX; both X-LINKED, coagulation phenotype, prolonged aPTT. VON WILLEBRAND DISEASE: COMMONEST inherited bleeding disorder, AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT, PLATELET phenotype (vWF mediates adhesion) but may also prolong aPTT since vWF carries factor VIII. ITP: antiplatelet antibodies, INCREASED marrow megakaryocytes. TTP: ADAMTS13 deficiency, so ultralarge vWF multimers persist. BERNARD-SOULIER: GPIb, adhesion, LARGE platelets. GLANZMANN: GPIIb-IIIa, aggregation, normal size.
DISSEMINATED INTRAVASCULAR COAGULATION is the one condition where everything is abnormal at once: low platelets, prolonged times, LOW FIBRINOGEN, raised D-dimer.
Transfusion reactions by timing
ACUTE HAEMOLYTIC (minutes): ABO incompatibility, usually clerical error. FEBRILE NON-HAEMOLYTIC (1-6 h): recipient antibodies against donor leukocytes. ANAPHYLACTIC (minutes): IgA DEFICIENCY with anti-IgA antibodies. TRALI (within 6 h): donor antibodies activating recipient neutrophils. DELAYED HAEMOLYTIC (days to weeks): anamnestic response to a minor antigen.
Fever with BACK PAIN and DARK URINE during transfusion is acute haemolytic until proved otherwise — stop immediately. TRALI and circulatory overload both cause breathlessness and are separated by the JUGULAR VENOUS PRESSURE, raised only in overload.
Acute leukaemia and the WHO 2022 blast threshold
An acute leukaemia is a MATURATION BLOCK AT THE BLAST STAGE. Traditional threshold 20% blasts. WHO 2022 has REMOVED the blast threshold for AML WITH A DEFINING GENETIC ABNORMALITY. The EXCEPTIONS still requiring 20% are AML with BCR-ABL1 and AML with CEBPA mutation.
The BCR-ABL1 exception exists specifically to avoid overlap with chronic myeloid leukaemia in blast crisis. WHO 2022 has also removed the accelerated phase of CML.
Myeloid versus lymphoid, and the key acute leukaemias
MYELOID: MYELOPEROXIDASE positive, AUER RODS. LYMPHOID: PAS block positivity, TdT. ALL: commonest childhood malignancy, peaks 2-5 years, CNS and TESTIS involvement; GOOD prognosis with hyperdiploidy and t(12;21), WORST with t(9;22). APL: t(15;17) fusing PML with retinoic acid receptor alpha, presents with DISSEMINATED INTRAVASCULAR COAGULATION from granule release.
ALL-TRANS RETINOIC ACID overcomes the maturation block directly, making APL the one acute leukaemia treated by forcing DIFFERENTIATION rather than by killing cells.
Chronic myeloid disorders
CML: t(9;22) PHILADELPHIA, BCR-ABL1 fusion tyrosine kinase; marked leukocytosis with FULL maturation spectrum, BASOPHILIA, LOW LEUKOCYTE ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE; treated with imatinib. JAK2-DRIVEN: polycythaemia vera, essential thrombocythaemia, primary myelofibrosis. CLL: mature B cell, commonest adult leukaemia in the West, SMUDGE CELLS, autoimmune haemolysis, RICHTER transformation. HAIRY CELL: TRAP positive, DRY TAP, splenomegaly WITHOUT lymphadenopathy.
Polycythaemia vera has raised red cell mass with LOW ERYTHROPOIETIN, which separates it from every secondary polycythaemia; aquagenic pruritus after a hot bath is classic and thrombosis is the main cause of death. Myelofibrosis shows TEAR-DROP cells and massive splenomegaly.
Lymphoma: pattern, cell and translocation
HODGKIN spreads CONTIGUOUSLY node group to node group; REED-STERNBERG cells, owl-eye, CD15 and CD30 positive. NON-HODGKIN spreads unpredictably with far more extranodal disease. TRANSLOCATIONS: follicular t(14;18) BCL2; Burkitt t(8;14) MYC; mantle cell t(11;14) cyclin D1.
Nodular sclerosis is commonest and affects young women; lymphocyte-rich has the best prognosis, lymphocyte-depleted the worst. ALCOHOL-INDUCED NODAL PAIN is uncommon but highly specific for Hodgkin. Burkitt shows a STARRY-SKY pattern from tingible body macrophages and the highest proliferation index of any tumour.
Multiple myeloma
CRAB criteria: hyperCalcaemia, Renal impairment, Anaemia, Bone lesions. Lesions are PUNCHED-OUT and PURELY LYTIC with NO osteoblastic reaction, so the ISOTOPE BONE SCAN IS NEGATIVE. Rouleaux, raised ESR, BENCE JONES proteinuria.
The URINE DIPSTICK IS NEGATIVE in Bence Jones proteinuria because it detects ALBUMIN, not light chains. A negative dipstick with heavy proteinuria on quantitative testing is itself the diagnostic clue.
⚠️

Traps NEET PG sets — and how to dodge them

These are the exact option-traps and misreads that cost marks under negative marking.

WATCH OUT
Using ferritin alone to exclude iron deficiency
Ferritin is an acute phase reactant, so a normal or raised value in an inflamed patient does not exclude iron deficiency. Transferrin saturation is more reliable in that setting, and a trial of iron may be needed.
WATCH OUT
Giving folate to a patient who may be B12 deficient
Folate corrects the anaemia while subacute combined degeneration continues to progress, and the haematological clue that would have prompted B12 testing is lost. Always check B12 before treating a megaloblastic anaemia with folate.
WATCH OUT
Reading a normal G6PD assay during acute haemolysis as excluding the diagnosis
The most deficient cells have already been destroyed and the surviving young cells have relatively high enzyme levels. Repeat the assay several weeks after recovery.
WATCH OUT
Expecting a positive isotope bone scan in myeloma
Myeloma lesions are purely lytic with no osteoblastic response, and isotope scans depend on osteoblastic activity. Skeletal survey, low-dose CT or whole-body MRI is used instead.
WATCH OUT
Assuming a prolonged aPTT always means bleeding risk
Factor XII deficiency prolongs the aPTT but causes no bleeding, and the lupus anticoagulant prolongs it while predisposing to thrombosis. Correlate the laboratory value with the clinical phenotype before answering.
WATCH OUT
Confusing the red cell count in iron deficiency and thalassaemia trait
Both are microcytic, but iron deficiency lowers the red cell count while thalassaemia trait preserves or raises it. That single number, with a normal ferritin, is the discriminator.
WATCH OUT
Treating von Willebrand disease as a coagulation-factor disorder
Von Willebrand factor mediates platelet adhesion, so the bleeding phenotype is mucocutaneous and platelet-like. The aPTT may still be prolonged because von Willebrand factor carries and stabilises factor VIII, which is a secondary effect.
WATCH OUT
Applying the 20 per cent blast rule universally
WHO 2022 removed the threshold for acute myeloid leukaemias with a defining genetic abnormality. Only AML with BCR-ABL1 and AML with CEBPA mutation still require 20 per cent, the former specifically to avoid overlap with CML blast crisis.
WATCH OUT
Confusing transfusion-related acute lung injury with circulatory overload
Both present with breathlessness within hours of transfusion. The jugular venous pressure is raised in circulatory overload and normal in lung injury, and diuresis helps only the former.

Exam-pattern practice

PYQ-style questions with full solutions. Work through them as a readiness check — mark yourself honestly and get your gap report at the end.

Readiness check

Are you exam-ready for Hematology & Hematological Malignancies?

9 problems from this chapter. Try each one, reveal the worked solution, mark yourself honestly — get your gap report at the end.

9 questions~6 min

5-minute revision

The whole chapter, distilled. Read this the night before the exam.

  • Ask three questions in order: which cell line, production or destruction, and where is the maturation block.
  • Mean corpuscular volume reflects the number of precursor divisions, so microcytosis means a haemoglobin problem and macrocytosis a nuclear one.
  • Ferritin separates iron deficiency from chronic disease; a preserved red cell count identifies thalassaemia trait.
  • Hepcidin degrades ferroportin and traps iron in macrophages, which is the mechanism of anaemia of chronic disease.
  • Methylmalonic acid is raised only in B12 deficiency; folate alone corrects the anaemia while subacute combined degeneration progresses.
  • The reticulocyte count splits normocytic anaemia into marrow-responding and marrow-failing groups.
  • Pancytopenia means aplasia, infiltration, megaloblastic anaemia or hypersplenism.
  • Haptoglobin and urine findings locate haemolysis; the direct Coombs test separates immune from non-immune causes.
  • G6PD assays are falsely normal during an acute episode because the deficient cells have already gone.
  • Fetal haemoglobin inhibits haemoglobin S polymerisation, which is why infants are protected and hydroxyurea works.
  • Beta thalassaemia major presents after six months with frontal bossing and a hair-on-end skull.
  • Platelet bleeding is mucocutaneous and immediate; factor bleeding is deep and delayed.
  • A mixing study that corrects means deficiency; failure to correct means an inhibitor.
  • Von Willebrand disease is the commonest inherited bleeding disorder and has a platelet phenotype.
  • Disseminated intravascular coagulation is the one state where platelets, times, fibrinogen and D-dimer are all abnormal.
  • Fever with back pain and dark urine during transfusion is an acute haemolytic reaction until proved otherwise.
  • Jugular venous pressure separates transfusion-associated circulatory overload from lung injury.
  • WHO 2022 removed the 20 per cent blast threshold for genetically defined AML except BCR-ABL1 and CEBPA entities.
  • Auer rods and myeloperoxidase mean myeloid; TdT and PAS block positivity mean lymphoid.
  • APL carries t(15;17), presents with DIC, and is treated by forcing differentiation with all-trans retinoic acid.
  • CML has BCR-ABL1 with basophilia and a low leukocyte alkaline phosphatase; polycythaemia vera has a low erythropoietin.
  • Hodgkin lymphoma spreads contiguously and contains CD15 and CD30 positive Reed-Sternberg cells.
  • Follicular is t(14;18), Burkitt t(8;14), mantle cell t(11;14).
  • Myeloma lesions are purely lytic with a negative bone scan, and the urine dipstick misses Bence Jones protein.

NEET PG question blueprint

How this topic is asked, tier by tier — so you can prep to the pattern.

Typical weightage: Each NEET PG question is worth +4/-1; haematology typically contributes 3-4 questions per attempt and recurs inside Medicine and Pediatrics stems

Question styleMarks eachTypical countWhat it tests
Anaemia and iron4~1Mean corpuscular volume reasoning, iron studies, B12 versus folate, pancytopenia
Haemolysis4~1Intravascular versus extravascular, the four mechanistic groups, G6PD, sickle cell and thalassaemia
Bleeding and transfusion4~1Bleeding phenotype, PT and aPTT interpretation, mixing studies, named disorders, transfusion reactions
Leukaemia4~1Acute versus chronic, WHO 2022 blast thresholds, cytochemistry, driver mutations and myeloproliferative neoplasms
Lymphoma and myeloma4~1Hodgkin versus non-Hodgkin, the diagnostic translocations, CRAB criteria and Bence Jones protein
Prep strategy
  • First pass: internalise the three-question framework and the reason mean corpuscular volume reflects mechanism, then apply it to every abnormal count you meet.
  • Second pass: drill the paired discriminations the exam depends on (iron deficiency versus chronic disease versus thalassaemia trait, B12 versus folate, warm versus cold autoimmune haemolysis, platelet versus factor bleeding, TRALI versus circulatory overload).
  • Final pass: memorise the translocation table cold, since those items are pure recall marks that cannot be reasoned out under time pressure.

Exam-hall strategy

Battle-tested tips from mentors and toppers for this topic under the sectional clock.

  1. Read the blood count first and classify it before reading the options; the classification usually eliminates half of them.
  2. In any microcytic stem, look specifically for the red cell count and the ferritin, since those two values resolve the commonest discrimination in the subject.
  3. For a bleeding stem, decide platelet-type or factor-type from the description before looking at any laboratory value.
  4. When a leukaemia stem names a translocation, answer from the translocation rather than from the morphology, since the genetic lesion is now the defining feature.
  5. In transfusion questions, use the time interval first — minutes, hours or days each point to a different reaction group.
  6. For lymphoma stems, check whether spread is contiguous or scattered, and whether extranodal sites are involved, before considering the histology.
  7. With NEET PG's +4/-1 marking, the pattern-recognition items in haematology (Auer rods, smudge cells, tear-drop cells, starry sky) are safe marks; attempt them without hesitation.
  8. Under the 5-group, 42-minute time-bound format, do not spend time recalculating iron studies in a group you are close to closing, since a completed group cannot be reopened.

Beyond the exam

Where this skill shows up in the job you're competing for — and in life.

Interpreting a routine full blood count

The three-question framework is exactly how a haematologist reads an abnormal count in practice, before any specialised test is ordered.

Preventing an avoidable neurological injury

Checking B12 before treating a megaloblastic anaemia with folate is a standing safety rule, because folate masks the anaemia while cord degeneration continues.

Transfusion safety

Recognising the timing and dominant feature of each reaction type determines whether to stop the transfusion, give diuretics, or provide respiratory support.

Targeted therapy from a translocation

Imatinib for BCR-ABL1 and all-trans retinoic acid for t(15;17) are both direct consequences of identifying the driver lesion, and are the model for modern precision oncology.

Where else this topic is tested

Prepare once, score in every exam that asks it.

USMLE Step 1Very high overlap — the anaemia framework, haemolysis workup and leukaemia genetics are core Step 1 content
FMGE / NExTVery high overlap, with greater emphasis on straightforward smear and count recognition
MD Medicine and MD Pathology entranceFoundational — this material is assumed working knowledge at that level

Questions aspirants ask

Pulled from the Q&A community and mentor sessions.

Because size is not arbitrary — it is set by how many times the precursor divides before it stops. The precursor keeps dividing until its haemoglobin concentration reaches a threshold. If haemoglobin production is impaired, that threshold arrives late, so the cell divides an extra time and ends up small. If DNA synthesis is impaired, the cell cannot complete its divisions and ends up large. So microcytosis is a haemoglobin problem and macrocytosis is a nuclear problem, every time.

Use the phenotype, which is usually all you need. Mucocutaneous, immediate, superficial bleeding — petechiae, epistaxis, menorrhagia, bleeding straight after a cut — is platelet-type. Deep, delayed bleeding — haemarthrosis, muscle haematoma, rebleeding hours after apparent haemostasis — is coagulation-factor type. That splits the differential in half before you look at a single number, and the stem's description of the bleeding is rarely accidental.

Learn both, and know which applies where. The 20 per cent rule remains correct for acute myeloid leukaemias that are not defined by a genetic abnormality, and for the two retained exceptions — AML with BCR-ABL1 and AML with mutated CEBPA. For genetically defined entities the threshold no longer applies. A question that names a defining translocation and gives a blast count below 20 per cent is testing exactly this point.

Because the dipstick uses a dye that binds albumin and does not react with immunoglobulin light chains. A myeloma patient losing several grams of free light chain per day therefore has a dipstick that reads negative. When a stem gives you a negative dipstick alongside heavy proteinuria on a quantitative measurement, that mismatch is not an error — it is the examiner pointing at Bence Jones proteinuria.
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