By the end of this chapter you'll be able to…

  • 1Classify a genetic error by mechanism and predict its inheritance and recurrence risk
  • 2Explain the maternal age effect from the biology of oocyte arrest
  • 3Explain why paternal age raises new dominant mutations rather than aneuploidy
  • 4Recognise trisomy 21, 18 and 13 and relate survival to chromosome size
  • 5Distinguish the three cytogenetic mechanisms of Down syndrome and their recurrence risks
  • 6Identify Turner and Klinefelter syndromes and their hormonal profiles
  • 7Derive the DiGeorge phenotype from the pharyngeal pouches involved
  • 8State when microarray is preferred to karyotype and what it cannot detect
  • 9Apply the four Mendelian patterns and read a pedigree correctly
  • 10Use absence of male-to-male transmission to identify X-linked inheritance
  • 11Distinguish penetrance from expressivity
  • 12Explain imprinting through Prader-Willi and Angelman syndromes
  • 13Explain mitochondrial inheritance and heteroplasmy
  • 14Distinguish screening from diagnosis and explain why cell-free DNA needs confirmation
  • 15Separate malformation, deformation, disruption and sequence, and list the major teratogens
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Why this chapter matters in NEET PG
Genetics is usually learned as a catalogue of syndromes, which is why candidates can recite the features of Down syndrome and still fail a question about recurrence risk. Classifying the error first solves that. A whole extra chromosome affects hundreds of genes, so the phenotype is multisystem, the risk relates to maternal age and the test is a karyotype. A single gene defect affects one protein, so the phenotype is narrow and the risk is a fixed Mendelian fraction. Imprinted and mitochondrial disorders break the rules entirely, which is exactly why they are examined out of proportion to their frequency. The chapter also carries the distinction candidates most often get wrong in practice: screening estimates risk, diagnosis establishes the answer, and cell-free DNA is emphatically the former.

Genetic & Congenital Disorders

Genetics is usually learned as a catalogue of syndromes, which is why candidates can recite the features of Down syndrome and still fail a question about recurrence risk.

The organising tool is to classify the error before naming the disease. Is it too much or too little chromosome, a single gene, an imprinted region, or the mitochondrial genome?

Each class behaves differently in three respects that examiners test constantly.

A whole extra chromosome affects hundreds of genes at once, so the phenotype involves many systems, the recurrence risk relates to maternal age, and the test is a karyotype. A single gene defect affects one protein, so the phenotype is narrower, the recurrence risk is a fixed Mendelian fraction, and the test is targeted sequencing.

Imprinted and mitochondrial disorders break Mendelian rules entirely, which is precisely why they are examined out of proportion to their frequency.

1. Aneuploidy and Why Age Matters

Aneuploidy is an abnormal chromosome number, and it usually arises from non-disjunction during meiosis, when a chromosome pair fails to separate.

Most non-disjunction is maternal and occurs in meiosis I, and this explains the maternal age effect that dominates the subject.

The mechanism is worth understanding. A woman's oocytes enter meiosis I before she is born and then arrest, remaining suspended in prophase until that oocyte ovulates decades later. The proteins holding the chromosome pairs together degrade over that time, so the older the oocyte, the more likely the pair separates incorrectly.

Sperm, by contrast, are produced continuously and freshly, which is why paternal age contributes to new dominant point mutations rather than to aneuploidy.

That single difference explains why Down syndrome risk rises with maternal age while achondroplasia and Marfan syndrome from new mutations rise with paternal age.

Aneuploidy is also the commonest cause of miscarriage, so the same mechanism that produces liveborn trisomies produces far more pregnancies that never continue.

2. The Autosomal Trisomies

Three autosomal trisomies are compatible with live birth, and their survival correlates inversely with the size of the chromosome, because larger chromosomes carry more genes and a larger dosage excess.

TrisomyNameKey featuresSurvival
21DownHypotonia, flat facies, upslanting palpebral fissures, single palmar crease, duodenal atresia, atrioventricular septal defectOften into adulthood
18EdwardsClenched hands with overlapping fingers, rocker-bottom feet, micrognathia, prominent occiputUsually under a year
13PatauMidline defects, cleft lip and palate, holoprosencephaly, polydactyly, microphthalmiaUsually weeks

Down syndrome is the one to know in depth, because its complications determine lifelong management.

Cardiac disease affects around half, with the atrioventricular septal defect being characteristic. Duodenal atresia produces the double bubble sign. Hypothyroidism, atlantoaxial instability, hearing loss, leukaemia and early Alzheimer disease all occur at increased frequency.

Early Alzheimer disease has a direct genetic explanation: the amyloid precursor protein gene lies on chromosome 21, so three copies mean lifelong overproduction of amyloid.

Three cytogenetic mechanisms produce Down syndrome, and the distinction matters entirely for recurrence risk.

Free trisomy 21 from non-disjunction accounts for the great majority and carries a low recurrence risk related to maternal age. Mosaicism produces a variable and often milder phenotype.

Robertsonian translocation accounts for a small minority, and here the child has 46 chromosomes with the extra 21 fused to another acrocentric chromosome. If a parent is a balanced carrier, the recurrence risk is high, which is why every child with Down syndrome should have a karyotype rather than a rapid aneuploidy test alone.

3. Sex Chromosome Disorders

Sex chromosome aneuploidies are generally milder than autosomal ones, because X inactivation limits dosage effects and the Y carries few genes.

Turner syndrome is 45,X, presenting with short stature, a webbed neck, widely spaced nipples, primary amenorrhoea from streak gonads, and coarctation of the aorta or a bicuspid aortic valve. Lymphoedema of the hands and feet may be evident at birth, and cystic hygroma in utero.

It is the one aneuploidy not associated with advanced maternal age, because it usually results from loss of a sex chromosome rather than from non-disjunction.

Klinefelter syndrome is 47,XXY, presenting after puberty with tall stature, long limbs, small firm testes, gynaecomastia and infertility. Testosterone is low and gonadotropins are high, indicating primary testicular failure.

It is the commonest genetic cause of male infertility and is frequently diagnosed only during infertility investigation, which is why karyotyping is indicated in severe male factor infertility.

4. Deletions and Microdeletions

A deletion removes a segment of chromosome, and where the segment is too small to see on a karyotype it is called a microdeletion, detected by fluorescence in situ hybridisation or chromosomal microarray.

Cri du chat syndrome results from a deletion on the short arm of chromosome 5 and is named for the characteristic high-pitched cat-like cry, with microcephaly and severe intellectual disability.

DiGeorge syndrome results from a 22q11.2 deletion and is best remembered by which embryological structures fail: the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches.

That single fact generates the whole phenotype. Thymic aplasia gives T-cell deficiency, parathyroid aplasia gives hypocalcaemia and tetany, and conotruncal cardiac defects such as tetralogy of Fallot and truncus arteriosus follow from neural crest involvement.

Williams syndrome from a 7q11.23 deletion produces supravalvular aortic stenosis, an outgoing personality, and hypercalcaemia.

Chromosomal microarray has largely replaced the karyotype as the first-line test in a child with unexplained developmental delay or multiple congenital anomalies, because it detects submicroscopic imbalances that a karyotype cannot see.

It has one important limitation: it detects copy number change, so it cannot detect balanced translocations, which is why a karyotype remains necessary when a balanced rearrangement is suspected, as in recurrent miscarriage.

5. Single Gene Disorders

Four Mendelian patterns account for most single gene disease, and the pattern predicts the recurrence risk directly.

Autosomal dominant conditions appear in every generation, affect both sexes equally, and give each child of an affected parent a one in two risk. Examples are achondroplasia, Marfan syndrome, neurofibromatosis and Huntington disease.

Autosomal recessive conditions typically appear in a single generation, affect both sexes, and give each child of two carriers a one in four risk. Consanguinity increases the frequency, which makes these conditions substantially more common in parts of India.

Examples are cystic fibrosis, sickle cell disease, thalassaemia and most inborn errors of metabolism.

X-linked recessive conditions affect males predominantly, are transmitted by carrier mothers, and are never transmitted from father to son, because a father gives his son a Y rather than an X. Examples are haemophilia A and B, Duchenne muscular dystrophy, and glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency.

Absence of male-to-male transmission is the single most useful pedigree observation, because it distinguishes X-linked from autosomal dominant inheritance immediately.

X-linked dominant conditions affect females more often and are lethal in males in some cases, as in Rett syndrome and incontinentia pigmenti.

Two concepts modify these patterns. Penetrance is the proportion of people with the genotype who show any phenotype, so reduced penetrance makes a dominant condition appear to skip a generation. Expressivity is how severely it is expressed among those affected, which is why neurofibromatosis varies from a few skin lesions to severe disease within one family.

6. When Mendel Does Not Apply

Three mechanisms break the standard patterns, and each is examined because of it.

Genomic imprinting means a gene is expressed from only one parental copy, so which parent contributed the abnormality determines the disease.

Prader-Willi and Angelman syndromes both involve the same 15q11-13 region and illustrate this perfectly. Loss of the paternal contribution gives Prader-Willi syndrome, with neonatal hypotonia and poor feeding followed by hyperphagia, obesity, hypogonadism and intellectual disability. Loss of the maternal contribution gives Angelman syndrome, with severe intellectual disability, ataxia, seizures and inappropriate laughter.

Mitochondrial inheritance is exclusively maternal, because the sperm contributes essentially no mitochondria to the zygote.

An affected mother therefore transmits to all her children, and an affected father transmits to none. Heteroplasmy, the coexistence of normal and mutant mitochondria, explains the variable severity, since the phenotype appears once the mutant proportion exceeds a threshold in a given tissue.

Tissues with high energy demand suffer first, which is why these disorders present with myopathy, encephalopathy, optic neuropathy and deafness.

Trinucleotide repeat expansion disorders show anticipation, meaning the disease appears earlier and more severely in successive generations, because the repeat expands as it is transmitted.

Fragile X syndrome is the commonest inherited cause of intellectual disability and is caused by CGG expansion in the FMR1 gene, producing a long face, large ears, macro-orchidism and autistic features.

Huntington disease and myotonic dystrophy are the other classical examples.

7. Screening and Diagnosis Before Birth

Screening estimates risk in a population; diagnosis establishes the answer in an individual. Confusing the two is the commonest error in this section.

Combined first trimester screening uses nuchal translucency with maternal serum markers and maternal age to generate a risk figure.

Cell-free fetal DNA testing, analysing placental DNA fragments in maternal blood, has transformed screening but remains a screening test.

Its detection rate for trisomy 21 is very high, but its positive predictive value depends on prevalence, and this is the point examiners test. The predictive value is high for trisomy 21, considerably lower for trisomy 18, and lower still for trisomy 13, simply because the rarer the condition, the greater the proportion of positives that are false.

A positive result therefore always requires confirmation by a diagnostic test, and acting on it without confirmation is a recognised cause of the termination of normal pregnancies.

Diagnostic tests obtain fetal tissue. Chorionic villus sampling is performed from around 11 weeks and carries a small risk of miscarriage. Amniocentesis is performed from around 15 weeks and remains the reference standard.

In India, disclosure of fetal sex on any of these tests is prohibited, and the legal framework is set out in the National Maternal-Child Health Programs chapter.

8. After Birth: Screening and Metabolic Disease

Newborn screening identifies conditions in which early treatment prevents irreversible damage, and the justification is always that the damage occurs before symptoms appear.

Congenital hypothyroidism is the paradigm. It is common, it is asymptomatic in the first weeks, untreated it causes permanent intellectual disability, and thyroxine started early prevents that entirely. Screening is therefore justified even where resources are limited.

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia, most often from 21-hydroxylase deficiency, presents with ambiguous genitalia in females and salt-wasting crisis in either sex, and it is a genuine neonatal emergency.

Inborn errors of metabolism should be suspected in a neonate who feeds and behaves normally at first and then deteriorates after a symptom-free interval.

That interval is the diagnostic clue, because the baby was protected in utero by the maternal circulation clearing the accumulating metabolite, and deterioration begins only after feeding starts.

Phenylketonuria causes intellectual disability, a musty odour and fair complexion, and is managed by dietary restriction. Galactosaemia presents with jaundice, hepatomegaly, cataracts and a susceptibility to Escherichia coli sepsis, and is managed by removing lactose.

9. Congenital Malformations and Teratogens

Not every congenital disorder is genetic. A malformation is a structural defect arising during organogenesis, and many are multifactorial, meaning several genes interact with an environmental exposure.

Neural tube defects are the most important because they are largely preventable. The neural tube closes by around 28 days after conception, which is often before a woman knows she is pregnant, and this timing is the whole reason folic acid must be started before conception rather than at the first antenatal visit.

Anencephaly is incompatible with life. Spina bifida ranges from occulta, often an incidental finding, through meningocele to myelomeningocele with neural tissue in the sac and consequent paralysis, bladder dysfunction and hydrocephalus.

Women with a previous affected child, on antiepileptic drugs, or with diabetes require a substantially higher folic acid dose.

A deformation differs from a malformation and the distinction is examined. A malformation is intrinsically abnormal tissue formation, whereas a deformation is normal tissue distorted by external mechanical force, as in the talipes and pulmonary hypoplasia of oligohydramnios.

A disruption is normal tissue destroyed by an external insult, as in amniotic band syndrome, and a sequence is a cascade of defects arising from one initiating problem, of which the Potter sequence following renal agenesis is the classic example.

Teratogens act during organogenesis, which runs roughly from the third to the eighth week, and exposure before that period tends to be all or nothing rather than malformation-producing.

Thalidomide causes limb reduction defects. Sodium valproate causes neural tube defects, and phenytoin a distinctive fetal hydantoin syndrome. Warfarin causes nasal hypoplasia and stippled epiphyses, and angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors cause renal failure and oligohydramnios. Isotretinoin is a potent teratogen requiring assured contraception, and alcohol causes fetal alcohol syndrome with characteristic facies and intellectual disability.

Maternal rubella, cytomegalovirus, toxoplasmosis and syphilis are the classic congenital infections and are developed in the Paediatric Infectious Diseases chapter.

10. Worked Examples

Example 1. A child has Down syndrome. The karyotype shows 46 chromosomes with a Robertsonian translocation involving chromosome 21.

The chromosome count of 46 rather than 47 is the key, because it establishes translocation rather than free trisomy.

This changes counselling entirely. Both parents must be karyotyped, because if one is a balanced carrier the recurrence risk is substantially raised rather than the low age-related risk of free trisomy. This is precisely why every child with Down syndrome should have a full karyotype rather than a rapid aneuploidy test alone.

Example 2. A pedigree shows affected males in several generations, with transmission through unaffected females and no father-to-son transmission.

The absence of male-to-male transmission is decisive, because a father passes a Y chromosome to his son, so an X-linked condition cannot be transmitted that way.

Combined with affected males and carrier females, this is X-linked recessive inheritance. Each son of a carrier mother has a one in two chance of being affected, and each daughter a one in two chance of being a carrier.

Example 3. A cell-free DNA test reports high risk for trisomy 13. The couple ask whether the diagnosis is confirmed.

It is not. Cell-free DNA is a screening test, and its positive predictive value falls as the condition becomes rarer, so a substantial proportion of positive results for trisomy 13 are false positives.

Diagnostic testing by amniocentesis is required before any irreversible decision. The high detection rate quoted for these tests describes sensitivity, not predictive value, and conflating the two leads directly to the termination of normal pregnancies.

Summary

  • Classify the error before naming the disease.
  • Chromosomal errors affect many genes; single gene errors affect one protein.
  • Most non-disjunction is maternal and occurs in meiosis I.
  • Oocytes arrest in prophase for decades, so cohesion proteins degrade with age.
  • Paternal age raises new dominant mutations, not aneuploidy.
  • Aneuploidy is the commonest cause of miscarriage.
  • Trisomy 21, 18 and 13 are compatible with live birth in decreasing order of survival.
  • Down syndrome features hypotonia, atrioventricular septal defect and duodenal atresia.
  • Early Alzheimer disease follows from three copies of the amyloid precursor gene.
  • Free trisomy carries a low recurrence risk; translocation may carry a high one.
  • Every child with Down syndrome needs a full karyotype, not a rapid test.
  • Turner syndrome is 45,X with short stature, streak gonads and coarctation.
  • Turner syndrome is not associated with advanced maternal age.
  • Klinefelter syndrome is 47,XXY with small firm testes and high gonadotropins.
  • Klinefelter is the commonest genetic cause of male infertility.
  • DiGeorge syndrome is a 22q11.2 deletion affecting the third and fourth pouches.
  • Thymic and parathyroid aplasia with conotruncal defects follow from that.
  • Microarray is first line in unexplained delay or multiple anomalies.
  • Microarray cannot detect balanced translocations; karyotype still can.
  • Autosomal dominant gives a one in two risk to each child.
  • Autosomal recessive gives one in four, and consanguinity raises frequency.
  • Absence of male-to-male transmission indicates X-linked inheritance.
  • Reduced penetrance makes a dominant condition appear to skip a generation.
  • Expressivity explains variable severity within one family.
  • Imprinting means which parent contributed the defect determines the disease.
  • Prader-Willi loses the paternal contribution; Angelman the maternal.
  • Mitochondrial inheritance is exclusively maternal.
  • Heteroplasmy explains variable severity through a threshold effect.
  • Trinucleotide repeat disorders show anticipation as the repeat expands.
  • Fragile X is the commonest inherited cause of intellectual disability.
  • Neural tube closure by 28 days is why folic acid must precede conception.
  • Malformation is abnormal formation; deformation is normal tissue distorted by force.
  • A disruption destroys normal tissue; a sequence cascades from one initiating defect.
  • Potter sequence follows renal agenesis.
  • Teratogens act during organogenesis, roughly weeks three to eight.
  • Valproate causes neural tube defects; warfarin causes stippled epiphyses.
  • Screening estimates risk; diagnosis establishes the answer.
  • Cell-free DNA predictive value falls as the condition becomes rarer.
  • A positive cell-free DNA result always requires diagnostic confirmation.
  • Chorionic villus sampling from 11 weeks; amniocentesis from 15.
  • Congenital hypothyroidism is the paradigm for newborn screening.
  • A symptom-free interval then deterioration suggests an inborn error.
  • The interval exists because the maternal circulation cleared the metabolite in utero.

Key formulas & results

Everything to memorise for the exam hall, in one card. Screenshot this for revision.

The organising tool
CLASSIFY THE ERROR BEFORE NAMING THE DISEASE. Is it TOO MUCH OR TOO LITTLE CHROMOSOME, a SINGLE GENE, an IMPRINTED REGION, or the MITOCHONDRIAL GENOME?
A WHOLE EXTRA CHROMOSOME AFFECTS HUNDREDS OF GENES AT ONCE, so the phenotype is MULTISYSTEM, the recurrence risk relates to MATERNAL AGE, and the test is a KARYOTYPE. A SINGLE GENE DEFECT AFFECTS ONE PROTEIN, so the phenotype is NARROWER, the risk is a FIXED MENDELIAN FRACTION, and the test is TARGETED SEQUENCING. IMPRINTED AND MITOCHONDRIAL DISORDERS BREAK MENDELIAN RULES ENTIRELY, WHICH IS PRECISELY WHY THEY ARE EXAMINED OUT OF PROPORTION TO THEIR FREQUENCY.
Why maternal age matters
MOST NON-DISJUNCTION IS MATERNAL AND OCCURS IN MEIOSIS I. A woman's OOCYTES ENTER MEIOSIS I BEFORE SHE IS BORN AND THEN ARREST IN PROPHASE until that oocyte ovulates DECADES LATER. The PROTEINS HOLDING THE CHROMOSOME PAIRS TOGETHER DEGRADE OVER THAT TIME.
SPERM ARE PRODUCED CONTINUOUSLY AND FRESHLY, WHICH IS WHY PATERNAL AGE CONTRIBUTES TO NEW DOMINANT POINT MUTATIONS RATHER THAN TO ANEUPLOIDY. That single difference explains why DOWN SYNDROME RISK RISES WITH MATERNAL AGE while ACHONDROPLASIA AND MARFAN SYNDROME FROM NEW MUTATIONS RISE WITH PATERNAL AGE. ANEUPLOIDY IS ALSO THE COMMONEST CAUSE OF MISCARRIAGE.
The autosomal trisomies
TRISOMY 21 (DOWN): HYPOTONIA, FLAT FACIES, UPSLANTING PALPEBRAL FISSURES, SINGLE PALMAR CREASE, DUODENAL ATRESIA, ATRIOVENTRICULAR SEPTAL DEFECT - often into ADULTHOOD. TRISOMY 18 (EDWARDS): CLENCHED HANDS WITH OVERLAPPING FINGERS, ROCKER-BOTTOM FEET, MICROGNATHIA, PROMINENT OCCIPUT - usually UNDER A YEAR. TRISOMY 13 (PATAU): MIDLINE DEFECTS, CLEFT LIP AND PALATE, HOLOPROSENCEPHALY, POLYDACTYLY, MICROPHTHALMIA - usually WEEKS.
SURVIVAL CORRELATES INVERSELY WITH THE SIZE OF THE CHROMOSOME, BECAUSE LARGER CHROMOSOMES CARRY MORE GENES AND A LARGER DOSAGE EXCESS. That relationship makes the survival ordering deducible rather than memorised.
Down syndrome complications
CARDIAC DISEASE in around HALF, with the ATRIOVENTRICULAR SEPTAL DEFECT characteristic. DUODENAL ATRESIA giving the DOUBLE BUBBLE SIGN. Also HYPOTHYROIDISM, ATLANTOAXIAL INSTABILITY, HEARING LOSS, LEUKAEMIA and EARLY ALZHEIMER DISEASE.
EARLY ALZHEIMER DISEASE HAS A DIRECT GENETIC EXPLANATION: THE AMYLOID PRECURSOR PROTEIN GENE LIES ON CHROMOSOME 21, SO THREE COPIES MEAN LIFELONG OVERPRODUCTION OF AMYLOID. This is a favourite question because the mechanism is so clean.
The three mechanisms of Down syndrome
FREE TRISOMY 21 from NON-DISJUNCTION: the GREAT MAJORITY, 47 chromosomes, LOW RECURRENCE RISK related to maternal age. MOSAICISM: VARIABLE AND OFTEN MILDER phenotype. ROBERTSONIAN TRANSLOCATION: a SMALL MINORITY, 46 CHROMOSOMES with the extra 21 FUSED TO ANOTHER ACROCENTRIC CHROMOSOME.
IF A PARENT IS A BALANCED CARRIER OF THE TRANSLOCATION, THE RECURRENCE RISK IS HIGH, WHICH IS WHY EVERY CHILD WITH DOWN SYNDROME SHOULD HAVE A FULL KARYOTYPE RATHER THAN A RAPID ANEUPLOIDY TEST ALONE. THE CHROMOSOME COUNT OF 46 RATHER THAN 47 IS THE GIVEAWAY IN A STEM.
Sex chromosome disorders
TURNER SYNDROME 45,X: SHORT STATURE, WEBBED NECK, WIDELY SPACED NIPPLES, PRIMARY AMENORRHOEA from STREAK GONADS, COARCTATION or BICUSPID AORTIC VALVE, LYMPHOEDEMA at birth, CYSTIC HYGROMA in utero. KLINEFELTER SYNDROME 47,XXY: TALL STATURE, LONG LIMBS, SMALL FIRM TESTES, GYNAECOMASTIA, INFERTILITY, LOW TESTOSTERONE with HIGH GONADOTROPINS.
SEX CHROMOSOME ANEUPLOIDIES ARE GENERALLY MILDER THAN AUTOSOMAL ONES, BECAUSE X INACTIVATION LIMITS DOSAGE EFFECTS AND THE Y CARRIES FEW GENES. TURNER SYNDROME IS THE ONE ANEUPLOIDY NOT ASSOCIATED WITH ADVANCED MATERNAL AGE, because it usually results from LOSS of a sex chromosome rather than non-disjunction. KLINEFELTER IS THE COMMONEST GENETIC CAUSE OF MALE INFERTILITY.
Microdeletion syndromes
CRI DU CHAT: deletion of the SHORT ARM OF CHROMOSOME 5, HIGH-PITCHED CAT-LIKE CRY, MICROCEPHALY, SEVERE INTELLECTUAL DISABILITY. DiGEORGE: 22q11.2 DELETION affecting the THIRD AND FOURTH PHARYNGEAL POUCHES. WILLIAMS: 7q11.23 DELETION with SUPRAVALVULAR AORTIC STENOSIS, OUTGOING PERSONALITY and HYPERCALCAEMIA.
THE PHARYNGEAL POUCH FACT GENERATES THE WHOLE DiGEORGE PHENOTYPE: THYMIC APLASIA gives T-CELL DEFICIENCY, PARATHYROID APLASIA gives HYPOCALCAEMIA AND TETANY, and CONOTRUNCAL DEFECTS such as TETRALOGY OF FALLOT and TRUNCUS ARTERIOSUS follow from NEURAL CREST INVOLVEMENT. Learn the embryology and the syndrome reconstructs itself.
Microarray against karyotype
CHROMOSOMAL MICROARRAY HAS LARGELY REPLACED THE KARYOTYPE AS FIRST-LINE TEST in a child with UNEXPLAINED DEVELOPMENTAL DELAY OR MULTIPLE CONGENITAL ANOMALIES, because it detects SUBMICROSCOPIC IMBALANCES A KARYOTYPE CANNOT SEE.
IT HAS ONE IMPORTANT LIMITATION: IT DETECTS COPY NUMBER CHANGE, SO IT CANNOT DETECT BALANCED TRANSLOCATIONS, WHICH IS WHY A KARYOTYPE REMAINS NECESSARY WHEN A BALANCED REARRANGEMENT IS SUSPECTED, AS IN RECURRENT MISCARRIAGE. A balanced translocation moves material without gaining or losing any, so there is no copy number change to detect.
The four Mendelian patterns
AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT: EVERY GENERATION, BOTH SEXES, ONE IN TWO RISK to each child - ACHONDROPLASIA, MARFAN, NEUROFIBROMATOSIS, HUNTINGTON. AUTOSOMAL RECESSIVE: SINGLE GENERATION, BOTH SEXES, ONE IN FOUR from two carriers - CYSTIC FIBROSIS, SICKLE CELL, THALASSAEMIA, most INBORN ERRORS. X-LINKED RECESSIVE: MALES PREDOMINANTLY, CARRIER MOTHERS, NEVER FATHER TO SON - HAEMOPHILIA A and B, DUCHENNE, G6PD DEFICIENCY. X-LINKED DOMINANT: FEMALES MORE OFTEN, sometimes MALE-LETHAL - RETT, INCONTINENTIA PIGMENTI.
ABSENCE OF MALE-TO-MALE TRANSMISSION IS THE SINGLE MOST USEFUL PEDIGREE OBSERVATION, BECAUSE IT DISTINGUISHES X-LINKED FROM AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT INHERITANCE IMMEDIATELY - a father gives his son a Y, not an X. CONSANGUINITY INCREASES RECESSIVE FREQUENCY, WHICH MAKES THESE CONDITIONS SUBSTANTIALLY MORE COMMON IN PARTS OF INDIA.
Penetrance and expressivity
PENETRANCE is the PROPORTION OF PEOPLE WITH THE GENOTYPE WHO SHOW ANY PHENOTYPE. EXPRESSIVITY is HOW SEVERELY IT IS EXPRESSED AMONG THOSE AFFECTED.
REDUCED PENETRANCE MAKES A DOMINANT CONDITION APPEAR TO SKIP A GENERATION, which is the commonest reason a pedigree looks recessive when it is not. VARIABLE EXPRESSIVITY IS WHY NEUROFIBROMATOSIS VARIES FROM A FEW SKIN LESIONS TO SEVERE DISEASE WITHIN ONE FAMILY. The two terms are routinely confused and the distinction is examined directly.
Genomic imprinting
A GENE IS EXPRESSED FROM ONLY ONE PARENTAL COPY, SO WHICH PARENT CONTRIBUTED THE ABNORMALITY DETERMINES THE DISEASE. LOSS OF THE PATERNAL CONTRIBUTION at 15q11-13 gives PRADER-WILLI SYNDROME: NEONATAL HYPOTONIA AND POOR FEEDING, then HYPERPHAGIA, OBESITY, HYPOGONADISM, INTELLECTUAL DISABILITY. LOSS OF THE MATERNAL CONTRIBUTION gives ANGELMAN SYNDROME: SEVERE INTELLECTUAL DISABILITY, ATAXIA, SEIZURES, INAPPROPRIATE LAUGHTER.
THE SAME CHROMOSOMAL REGION PRODUCES TWO COMPLETELY DIFFERENT DISEASES DEPENDING ONLY ON PARENTAL ORIGIN, which is the cleanest demonstration of imprinting in medicine and the reason this pair is examined every year. The Prader-Willi feeding sequence, from POOR FEEDING TO HYPERPHAGIA, is itself a favourite detail.
Mitochondrial inheritance
EXCLUSIVELY MATERNAL, because the SPERM CONTRIBUTES ESSENTIALLY NO MITOCHONDRIA TO THE ZYGOTE. AN AFFECTED MOTHER TRANSMITS TO ALL HER CHILDREN; AN AFFECTED FATHER TRANSMITS TO NONE. HETEROPLASMY, the COEXISTENCE OF NORMAL AND MUTANT MITOCHONDRIA, explains VARIABLE SEVERITY through a THRESHOLD EFFECT.
TISSUES WITH HIGH ENERGY DEMAND SUFFER FIRST, WHICH IS WHY THESE DISORDERS PRESENT WITH MYOPATHY, ENCEPHALOPATHY, OPTIC NEUROPATHY AND DEAFNESS. The all-children-or-no-children transmission pattern is unmistakable in a pedigree and cannot be produced by any Mendelian mechanism.
Trinucleotide repeat expansion
SHOWS ANTICIPATION, meaning the disease APPEARS EARLIER AND MORE SEVERELY IN SUCCESSIVE GENERATIONS, because THE REPEAT EXPANDS AS IT IS TRANSMITTED. FRAGILE X SYNDROME: CGG expansion in FMR1, the COMMONEST INHERITED CAUSE OF INTELLECTUAL DISABILITY, with a LONG FACE, LARGE EARS, MACRO-ORCHIDISM and AUTISTIC FEATURES. Also HUNTINGTON DISEASE and MYOTONIC DYSTROPHY.
ANTICIPATION IS THE PEDIGREE SIGNATURE: a grandparent with mild late-onset disease, a parent with moderate disease, and a severely affected child. No stable mutation can produce that pattern.
Screening against diagnosis
SCREENING ESTIMATES RISK IN A POPULATION; DIAGNOSIS ESTABLISHES THE ANSWER IN AN INDIVIDUAL. COMBINED FIRST TRIMESTER SCREENING uses NUCHAL TRANSLUCENCY with MATERNAL SERUM MARKERS and MATERNAL AGE. CELL-FREE FETAL DNA analyses PLACENTAL DNA FRAGMENTS IN MATERNAL BLOOD and REMAINS A SCREENING TEST.
CONFUSING THE TWO IS THE COMMONEST ERROR IN THIS SECTION. Its DETECTION RATE for trisomy 21 is VERY HIGH, BUT ITS POSITIVE PREDICTIVE VALUE DEPENDS ON PREVALENCE: HIGH FOR TRISOMY 21, CONSIDERABLY LOWER FOR TRISOMY 18, AND LOWER STILL FOR TRISOMY 13, simply because THE RARER THE CONDITION, THE GREATER THE PROPORTION OF POSITIVES THAT ARE FALSE. A POSITIVE RESULT ALWAYS REQUIRES DIAGNOSTIC CONFIRMATION.
Diagnostic tests
CHORIONIC VILLUS SAMPLING from around 11 WEEKS, with a SMALL RISK OF MISCARRIAGE. AMNIOCENTESIS from around 15 WEEKS, the REFERENCE STANDARD.
DIAGNOSTIC TESTS OBTAIN FETAL TISSUE, which is what distinguishes them from screening. ACTING ON A POSITIVE SCREEN WITHOUT CONFIRMATION IS A RECOGNISED CAUSE OF THE TERMINATION OF NORMAL PREGNANCIES. In India, DISCLOSURE OF FETAL SEX ON ANY OF THESE TESTS IS PROHIBITED.
Newborn screening
Identifies conditions in which EARLY TREATMENT PREVENTS IRREVERSIBLE DAMAGE, and the justification is always that THE DAMAGE OCCURS BEFORE SYMPTOMS APPEAR. CONGENITAL HYPOTHYROIDISM IS THE PARADIGM: COMMON, ASYMPTOMATIC IN THE FIRST WEEKS, UNTREATED IT CAUSES PERMANENT INTELLECTUAL DISABILITY, and THYROXINE STARTED EARLY PREVENTS THAT ENTIRELY.
CONGENITAL ADRENAL HYPERPLASIA, most often from 21-HYDROXYLASE DEFICIENCY, presents with AMBIGUOUS GENITALIA IN FEMALES and SALT-WASTING CRISIS IN EITHER SEX, and is a GENUINE NEONATAL EMERGENCY. The screening justification is always the gap between the onset of damage and the onset of symptoms.
Inborn errors of metabolism
SUSPECT IN A NEONATE WHO FEEDS AND BEHAVES NORMALLY AT FIRST AND THEN DETERIORATES AFTER A SYMPTOM-FREE INTERVAL. PHENYLKETONURIA: INTELLECTUAL DISABILITY, MUSTY ODOUR, FAIR COMPLEXION; DIETARY RESTRICTION. GALACTOSAEMIA: JAUNDICE, HEPATOMEGALY, CATARACTS, ESCHERICHIA COLI SEPSIS; REMOVE LACTOSE.
THAT INTERVAL IS THE DIAGNOSTIC CLUE, BECAUSE THE BABY WAS PROTECTED IN UTERO BY THE MATERNAL CIRCULATION CLEARING THE ACCUMULATING METABOLITE, AND DETERIORATION BEGINS ONLY AFTER FEEDING STARTS. A baby who was well for two days and then collapsed is a metabolic presentation until proved otherwise.
Malformation, deformation, disruption and sequence
MALFORMATION: INTRINSICALLY ABNORMAL TISSUE FORMATION. DEFORMATION: NORMAL TISSUE DISTORTED BY EXTERNAL MECHANICAL FORCE, as in the TALIPES AND PULMONARY HYPOPLASIA OF OLIGOHYDRAMNIOS. DISRUPTION: NORMAL TISSUE DESTROYED BY AN EXTERNAL INSULT, as in AMNIOTIC BAND SYNDROME. SEQUENCE: a CASCADE OF DEFECTS FROM ONE INITIATING PROBLEM, classically the POTTER SEQUENCE following RENAL AGENESIS.
THE DISTINCTION IS EXAMINED AND TURNS ON WHETHER THE TISSUE WAS EVER NORMAL. Deformations generally have a better prognosis than malformations because the underlying tissue is intact and may remodel once the force is removed.
Neural tube defects and teratogens
THE NEURAL TUBE CLOSES BY AROUND 28 DAYS AFTER CONCEPTION, OFTEN BEFORE A WOMAN KNOWS SHE IS PREGNANT, WHICH IS WHY FOLIC ACID MUST BE STARTED BEFORE CONCEPTION. TERATOGENS ACT DURING ORGANOGENESIS, ROUGHLY WEEKS THREE TO EIGHT. THALIDOMIDE: LIMB REDUCTION. VALPROATE: NEURAL TUBE DEFECTS. PHENYTOIN: FETAL HYDANTOIN SYNDROME. WARFARIN: NASAL HYPOPLASIA and STIPPLED EPIPHYSES. ACE INHIBITORS: RENAL FAILURE and OLIGOHYDRAMNIOS. ISOTRETINOIN: potent teratogen. ALCOHOL: FETAL ALCOHOL SYNDROME.
EXPOSURE BEFORE ORGANOGENESIS TENDS TO BE ALL OR NOTHING RATHER THAN MALFORMATION-PRODUCING, because the embryo either dies or repairs completely at that stage. WOMEN WITH A PREVIOUS AFFECTED CHILD, ON ANTIEPILEPTIC DRUGS, OR WITH DIABETES REQUIRE A SUBSTANTIALLY HIGHER FOLIC ACID DOSE. SPINA BIFIDA ranges from OCCULTA through MENINGOCELE to MYELOMENINGOCELE with NEURAL TISSUE IN THE SAC.
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Traps NEET PG sets — and how to dodge them

These are the exact option-traps and misreads that cost marks under negative marking.

WATCH OUT
Ordering a rapid aneuploidy test alone in a newborn with Down syndrome
A rapid test confirms trisomy 21 but cannot distinguish free trisomy from a Robertsonian translocation. If the child has 46 chromosomes with a translocation and a parent is a balanced carrier, the recurrence risk is high, so a full karyotype is needed for counselling.
WATCH OUT
Attributing all age-related genetic risk to the mother
Maternal age raises aneuploidy because oocytes arrest in meiosis I for decades. Paternal age raises new dominant point mutations, such as achondroplasia and Marfan syndrome, because spermatogonia divide continually and accumulate replication errors.
WATCH OUT
Associating Turner syndrome with advanced maternal age
Turner syndrome usually results from loss of a sex chromosome rather than from non-disjunction, so it is the one aneuploidy that does not show a maternal age effect. Assuming otherwise is a common trap.
WATCH OUT
Using chromosomal microarray to investigate recurrent miscarriage
Microarray detects copy number change, and a balanced translocation gains and loses nothing, so it is invisible. Parental karyotyping is required where a balanced rearrangement is the suspected cause.
WATCH OUT
Reading a pedigree with affected males as necessarily X-linked
Check for male-to-male transmission first. A father cannot pass an X to his son, so any father-to-son transmission excludes X-linked inheritance and points to autosomal dominant with sex-limited expression or chance clustering.
WATCH OUT
Concluding a condition is recessive because it skipped a generation
Reduced penetrance in a dominant condition produces exactly that appearance: an unaffected carrier parent between two affected relatives. Penetrance concerns whether the phenotype appears at all, and expressivity how severe it is when it does.
WATCH OUT
Treating Prader-Willi and Angelman syndromes as unrelated conditions
Both involve the same 15q11-13 region, and which disease results depends only on whether the paternal or maternal contribution was lost. This is imprinting, and it is why parental origin must be established rather than just the deletion.
WATCH OUT
Applying Mendelian recurrence risks to a mitochondrial disorder
Mitochondrial DNA is transmitted only in the oocyte, so an affected mother transmits to all her children and an affected father to none. Heteroplasmy then makes severity unpredictable, so a numerical Mendelian risk cannot be given.
WATCH OUT
Treating a positive cell-free DNA result as a diagnosis
It is a screening test whose positive predictive value depends on prevalence, so a substantial proportion of positives for the rarer trisomies are false. Confirmation by chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis is required before any irreversible decision.
WATCH OUT
Quoting detection rate when a couple ask how likely the result is to be correct
Detection rate is sensitivity, which describes how many affected pregnancies the test finds. What the couple are asking about is positive predictive value, which depends on how common the condition is, and the two diverge sharply for trisomy 13.
WATCH OUT
Starting folic acid at the first antenatal visit
The neural tube closes by about 28 days after conception, which is frequently before the pregnancy is recognised. Supplementation must begin before conception to prevent neural tube defects, and higher doses are needed after a previous affected child or on antiepileptics.
WATCH OUT
Excluding a metabolic disorder because the baby was initially well
The symptom-free interval is characteristic, not reassuring. In utero the maternal circulation cleared the accumulating metabolite, so deterioration begins only after feeding starts and the substrate load arrives.
WATCH OUT
Confusing a deformation with a malformation
A malformation is tissue that formed abnormally; a deformation is normal tissue distorted by external force, as in the talipes of oligohydramnios. The distinction matters because deformations often remodel once the force is removed.
WATCH OUT
Forgetting the hypocalcaemia in DiGeorge syndrome
The third and fourth pharyngeal pouches form both thymus and parathyroids, so parathyroid aplasia accompanies the immunodeficiency. A neonate with a conotruncal cardiac defect and tetany should prompt testing for 22q11.2 deletion.
WATCH OUT
Assuming Klinefelter syndrome presents in childhood
Features are minimal before puberty and it typically presents with tall stature, small firm testes, gynaecomastia or infertility afterwards. It is the commonest genetic cause of male infertility, which is why karyotyping is indicated in severe male factor.

Exam-pattern practice

PYQ-style questions with full solutions. Work through them as a readiness check — mark yourself honestly and get your gap report at the end.

Readiness check

Are you exam-ready for "Genetic & Congenital Disorders"?

9 problems from this chapter. Try each one, reveal the worked solution, mark yourself honestly — get your gap report at the end.

9 questions~6 min

5-minute revision

The whole chapter, distilled. Read this the night before the exam.

  • Classify the error before naming the disease.
  • Chromosomal errors are multisystem; single gene errors are narrower.
  • Most non-disjunction is maternal and occurs in meiosis I.
  • Oocytes arrest in prophase for decades, so cohesion degrades.
  • Paternal age raises new dominant mutations, not aneuploidy.
  • Aneuploidy is the commonest cause of miscarriage.
  • Survival in trisomy falls as chromosome size rises.
  • Down syndrome features atrioventricular septal defect and duodenal atresia.
  • The double bubble sign indicates duodenal atresia.
  • Three copies of the amyloid precursor gene explain early Alzheimer disease.
  • Free trisomy carries low recurrence risk; translocation may carry high.
  • Forty-six chromosomes in Down syndrome means translocation.
  • Karyotype every child with Down syndrome, not a rapid test alone.
  • Turner syndrome is 45,X with streak gonads and coarctation.
  • Turner syndrome shows no maternal age effect.
  • Klinefelter is 47,XXY with small firm testes and raised gonadotropins.
  • Klinefelter is the commonest genetic cause of male infertility.
  • Cri du chat is a deletion on the short arm of chromosome 5.
  • DiGeorge is 22q11.2, affecting the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches.
  • Thymic and parathyroid aplasia with conotruncal defects follow.
  • Williams syndrome gives supravalvular aortic stenosis and hypercalcaemia.
  • Microarray is first line in unexplained delay or multiple anomalies.
  • Microarray cannot detect balanced translocations.
  • Autosomal dominant gives one in two; recessive one in four.
  • Consanguinity raises recessive disease frequency in India.
  • No male-to-male transmission means X-linked.
  • Penetrance is whether it appears; expressivity is how severely.
  • Reduced penetrance makes dominant conditions appear to skip generations.
  • Imprinting means parental origin determines the disease.
  • Prader-Willi loses paternal; Angelman loses maternal 15q11-13.
  • Prader-Willi runs poor feeding then hyperphagia.
  • Mitochondrial inheritance is exclusively maternal.
  • Heteroplasmy gives a threshold effect and variable severity.
  • High-energy tissues fail first in mitochondrial disease.
  • Trinucleotide repeats show anticipation.
  • Fragile X is the commonest inherited cause of intellectual disability.
  • Screening estimates risk; diagnosis establishes the answer.
  • Cell-free DNA predictive value falls as prevalence falls.
  • A positive screen always needs diagnostic confirmation.
  • Chorionic villus sampling from 11 weeks; amniocentesis from 15.
  • Congenital hypothyroidism is the newborn screening paradigm.
  • Congenital adrenal hyperplasia can present as salt-wasting crisis.
  • A symptom-free interval then collapse suggests a metabolic disorder.
  • The interval reflects placental clearance in utero.
  • Neural tube closure by 28 days means folic acid precedes conception.
  • Malformation is abnormal formation; deformation is external distortion.
  • Potter sequence follows renal agenesis.
  • Teratogens act in weeks three to eight; earlier is all or nothing.
  • Valproate causes neural tube defects; warfarin stippled epiphyses.

NEET PG question blueprint

How this topic is asked, tier by tier — so you can prep to the pattern.

Typical weightage: Each NEET PG question is worth +4/-1; genetic and congenital disorders contribute 5-6 questions per attempt and overlap with Biochemistry, Pathology and Obstetrics

Question styleMarks eachTypical countWhat it tests
Chromosomal disorders4~2The maternal age mechanism, the three trisomies, Down syndrome cytogenetics and complications, and the sex chromosome aneuploidies
Inheritance patterns4~1The four Mendelian patterns, pedigree reading, male-to-male transmission, penetrance and expressivity
Imprinting and non-Mendelian4~1Prader-Willi against Angelman, mitochondrial inheritance and heteroplasmy, and anticipation in repeat expansions
Prenatal screening4~1Screening against diagnosis, cell-free DNA and predictive value, chorionic villus sampling and amniocentesis timing
Congenital and metabolic4~1Newborn screening rationale, inborn errors and the symptom-free interval, malformation terminology, neural tube defects and teratogens
Prep strategy
  • First pass: learn to classify errors by mechanism and derive the recurrence risk from the class, which answers most questions without syndrome recall.
  • Second pass: memorise the three trisomies, the two sex chromosome disorders and the Prader-Willi against Angelman pair, all of which appear as direct recall.
  • Final pass: drill the two conceptual traps that generate hard stems - why 46 chromosomes changes Down syndrome counselling, and why a high detection rate does not mean a positive result is likely to be true.

Exam-hall strategy

Battle-tested tips from mentors and toppers for this topic under the sectional clock.

  1. Identify the class of error before trying to name the syndrome.
  2. In pedigrees, check for male-to-male transmission first.
  3. Count the chromosomes in any karyotype given, since 46 changes the answer.
  4. Watch for anticipation, which points to trinucleotide repeat expansion.
  5. Check whether a named prenatal test is screening or diagnostic.
  6. A well neonate who deteriorates after an interval is metabolic until disproved.
  7. With NEET PG's +4/-1 marking, the inheritance patterns and the imprinting pair are high-certainty recall worth securing quickly.
  8. Under the 5-group, 42-minute time-bound format, these stems are short and factual; bank them fast, since a closed group cannot be reopened.

Beyond the exam

Where this skill shows up in the job you're competing for — and in life.

Counselling after a Down syndrome diagnosis

Ordering a full karyotype rather than a rapid test is what identifies the small proportion of families with a translocation carrier parent, for whom recurrence risk is completely different.

Explaining a positive prenatal screen

Being able to say what positive predictive value means, and why it differs between trisomies, prevents couples making irreversible decisions on a result that is more likely false than true.

Preconception folic acid

Advising supplementation before conception, rather than at booking, is the difference between preventing a neural tube defect and documenting one.

The collapsing neonate

Recognising the symptom-free interval and sending ammonia, lactate and a blood gas alongside the septic screen is what catches a treatable metabolic crisis before irreversible damage.

Where else this topic is tested

Prepare once, score in every exam that asks it.

FMGE / NExTVery high overlap — inheritance patterns, trisomies and the imprinting syndromes are examined at identical depth, with consanguinity weighted more heavily
USMLE Step 1 and Step 2 CKVery high overlap — the molecular basis, pedigree analysis and syndromic features are shared almost exactly
MD Paediatrics and DM Medical Genetics entranceFoundational — assumed working knowledge, with molecular diagnostics, variant interpretation and dysmorphology examined far more deeply

Questions aspirants ask

Pulled from the Q&A community and mentor sessions.

Because the two gametes are made in completely different ways. All of a woman's oocytes enter meiosis I before she is born and then arrest in prophase, held there until that particular oocyte is ovulated. An oocyte released at 40 has been suspended mid-division for four decades, and the cohesin proteins holding sister chromatids and homologous pairs together degrade steadily over that time with no mechanism to replace them. When division finally completes, the chromosomes are more likely to segregate incorrectly, producing an aneuploid egg. Spermatogenesis is the opposite: sperm are made continuously, and any given sperm completed meiosis within the preceding few months, so cohesion has had no time to fail. What accumulates in men instead is replication error, because spermatogonial stem cells divide repeatedly throughout life, and each division carries a small chance of a point mutation. Older fathers therefore transmit more new dominant point mutations, which is why achondroplasia, Marfan syndrome and Apert syndrome show a paternal age effect while Down syndrome does not.

Because of imprinting, which means some genes are switched off depending on which parent they came from. For most genes both copies are active, so losing one leaves a spare. In an imprinted region only one parental copy is ever expressed, and the other is silenced by methylation laid down during gametogenesis. Losing the active copy therefore leaves nothing working, even though a physically intact second copy is present. At 15q11-13 the arrangement is mixed: some genes are expressed only from the paternal chromosome and one gene, UBE3A, is expressed only from the maternal chromosome in the brain. A deletion on the paternal chromosome silences the paternally expressed genes and produces Prader-Willi syndrome. The identical deletion on the maternal chromosome removes maternal UBE3A and produces Angelman syndrome, a quite different condition. The same logic explains why uniparental disomy, in which both copies come from one parent with no deletion at all, can produce either syndrome depending on which parent contributed both.

Because 99 per cent describes sensitivity, which answers a question nobody in the consulting room is asking. Sensitivity tells you what proportion of affected pregnancies the test flags. What the woman wants to know is the opposite: given that her result is positive, what is the chance her baby is affected. That is positive predictive value, and it depends on how common the condition is in her population. For trisomy 21 in an older woman it is high, because true positives are relatively plentiful. For trisomy 13 in a young woman it can be surprisingly low, because the condition is rare and the small false positive rate applied to a large unaffected population generates a comparable number of positives. There are also biological reasons for discordance: the DNA analysed is placental, not fetal, so confined placental mosaicism produces false positives, and a vanished twin or a maternal chromosomal abnormality can do the same. That is why every positive result is confirmed by chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis before any irreversible decision.

Look for the shape of the illness rather than any particular sign. The characteristic pattern is a baby who was entirely well at birth, fed normally, and then deteriorated after an interval of hours to days with vomiting, lethargy, poor feeding, seizures and eventually coma. That interval is the diagnostic feature. In utero the placenta cleared the accumulating metabolite into the maternal circulation and the mother's liver dealt with it, so the fetus was protected. Once the cord is cut and feeding begins, the substrate arrives and there is no longer any means of clearance, so the metabolite accumulates until it becomes toxic. Three further clues help: the baby often looks septic and is treated as such, so a full septic screen that turns out negative in a deteriorating baby should prompt metabolic investigation; consanguinity raises the probability substantially since most of these conditions are autosomal recessive; and a previous unexplained neonatal death in the family is highly significant. The immediate investigations are glucose, blood gas for acidosis, ammonia, lactate and ketones.

Classify the mechanism first, because it usually determines the answer before you have identified the syndrome. If the stem gives a pedigree, look for male-to-male transmission, which excludes X-linked inheritance, and for transmission through all mothers and no fathers, which means mitochondrial. If it gives a karyotype, count the chromosomes, since 46 in a child with Down syndrome means translocation and changes the counselling entirely. If it describes a child with multiple anomalies and developmental delay, the answer usually involves microarray rather than karyotype, unless a balanced rearrangement is suspected. If it describes worsening severity across generations, that is anticipation and points to a trinucleotide repeat. If it involves a prenatal test result, check whether the test named is a screening or a diagnostic test, because almost every question in that area turns on that single distinction. And if a neonate was well and then deteriorated, think metabolic before anything else.
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